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Do you think it might be a mystery?
Do you think it might be a mystery?
Could be, but the Holy Spirit would reveal mysteries, so google should know it.
https://carm.org/if-jesus-god-then-why-did-he-not-know-time-his-return
All three creeds used by Christians (Nicene, Apostles, Athanasian) are from scripture.
Lämmchen's Post #220 on Page 22:
Than how come they say different things? How come they betray developing theology in line with other sources of church history?
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
... Continued
From Lämmchen's Post #4 on Page 1:
Yet more scripture offered by Lämmchen in support of the notion that Jesus was 100% God when He walked the Earth.
never began to exist and never will cease to exist
John 1:1
Here we have a chance for the Reader to do some simple and fun detective work.
But first we need to lift the lid off the systematic suppression of some important information.
The Greek in John 1:1 can validly be translated two ways:
1. "The Word (Logos) was with God, and the Word was God" – meaning the Word was with Himself.
2. "The Word (Logos) was with God, and the Word was a god" – meaning the Word was an incredibly powerful being, existing with God.
(The original Greek has no capital letters. They are supplied by translators. Nor has Greek the "a" and "an" of English. By way of comparison, in at least one area of Britain, it is common to hear things like "Open window" (not "the window") and "Close door" (not "the door").)
Since becoming aware of that dual meaning some years ago, Pedrito has never ceased to wonder why theologians continue to jump through flaming hoops and crawl over broken bottles (as it were) to stress the translation that supports "orthodox" belief, and suppress the knowledge of the other equally linguistically valid meaning.
John 1:1 is actually, of itself, a linguistically and doctrinally neutral verse.
Why not just admit that and move on? Why is that one verse deemed to be so important? Why not simply rely on the other evidence, whatever that may be?
Now for the detective work...
Continued ...
I marked two statements in your post with bold red text because I intend to reply to the claims made in those statements.
The first statement is 1. "The Word (Logos) was with God, and the Word was God" – meaning the Word was with Himself.
The Greek of John 1:1 ends with καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος (and God was the Word). The use of Θεὸς (God) without the definite article (the) informs the reader that Θεὸς is a quality belonging to the Λόγος (Logos, that is Word). The quality that is possessed by the Λόγος is Diety; that is to say the Λόγος is God. In the expression καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος the word Θεὸς is not pointing to YHWH as a being but rather to the quality of being God. Thus the translators translate the expression καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος as "and the Word was God" by which they mean "and the Word was [by nature] God". Thus the statement in your post is incorrect by claiming that the expression "and the Word was God" means that the Word was with himself when in fact it is claiming that the Word (Jesus Christ) is God.
The second statement your post makes is John 1:1 is actually, of itself, a linguistically and doctrinally neutral verse. which is not the case. The words καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος teach that the Word is God by nature. The same claim about Jesus Christ is made by Paul in Philippians 2:6. He always had the nature of God, but he did not think that by force he should try to remain equal with God. (Philippians 2:6 GNB)
That translation seems a little partial.I marked two statements in your post with bold red text because I intend to reply to the claims made in those statements.
The first statement is 1. "The Word (Logos) was with God, and the Word was God" – meaning the Word was with Himself.
The Greek of John 1:1 ends with καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος (and God was the Word). The use of Θεὸς (God) without the definite article (the) informs the reader that Θεὸς is a quality belonging to the Λόγος (Logos, that is Word). The quality that is possessed by the Λόγος is Diety; that is to say the Λόγος is God. In the expression καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος the word Θεὸς is not pointing to YHWH as a being but rather to the quality of being God. Thus the translators translate the expression καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος as "and the Word was God" by which they mean "and the Word was [by nature] God". Thus the statement in your post is incorrect by claiming that the expression "and the Word was God" means that the Word was with himself when in fact it is claiming that the Word (Jesus Christ) is God.
The second statement your post makes is John 1:1 is actually, of itself, a linguistically and doctrinally neutral verse. which is not the case. The words καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος teach that the Word is God by nature. The same claim about Jesus Christ is made by Paul in Philippians 2:6. He always had the nature of God, but he did not think that by force he should try to remain equal with God. (Philippians 2:6 GNB)
That translation seems a little partial.
Philippians: 2. 5. Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6. Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7. But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: 8. And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. 9. Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
Says plainly that GOD the father is different from the Christ of GOD. God wouldn't be humbled before men. Nor would there have been a need for GOD to kill himself to appease his own self.
People really do some excessive contorting, it seems, to support their own opinion.
peace
That translation seems a little partial.
Philippians: 2. 5. Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6. Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7. But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: 8. And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. 9. Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
Says plainly that GOD the father is different from the Christ of GOD. God wouldn't be humbled before men. Nor would there have been a need for GOD to kill himself to appease his own self.
People really do some excessive contorting, it seems, to support their own opinion.
peace
I'm sorry friend but I couldn't really understand what you were trying to say. Please attempt to explain that I might respond more adequately.Have you neglected a portion of your own bible scripture you have chosen to use to try to insist that Jesus is not God but it says so itself in front of you? The words being in the form of God does not pertain to anyone else, plain old man or woman, ever described therein except to Jesus. Being in the form of God is clearly stating that Jesus is God. Your contention concerning the rest to apply to him and insisting he isn't God because he is not equal with God is because you do not understand how it was to be for Jesus mission while here on Earth in order to reach the sacrifice.
MAN was created in the IMAGE OF GOD so MAN and GOD are the same exact thing. Jesus was the first servant to testify to the knowledge called Christ to learn this to be true. This is why Jesus learned that he ( created MAN ) and his Father ( GOD ) are ONE.
Absolute misdirection. To be Crist is to be utterly humbled in ones knowledge and faith in GOD as it pertains to self. Jesus knowing and abiding wholly by the will of GOD doesn't in any way mean all of man in their vanity greed and knowing misdirection is equivalent to the One Creator GOD.MAN was created in the IMAGE OF GOD so MAN and GOD are the same exact thing. Jesus was the first servant to testify to the knowledge called Christ to learn this to be true. This is why Jesus learned that he ( created MAN ) and his Father ( GOD ) are ONE.
NONE of us MEN or GOD knows who were are until we begin experiencing life in VISIBLE BODIES in VISIBLE WORLDS.
Jesus and the other servants who were used to start the 1,000 year reign of Christ
didn't have any computers or AI and Voice technology to observe so that they could learn who MAN and GOD were