Because you and Josiah claim that they weren't accepted by the early Christians
Friend, you've not been reading my posts. I NEVER made any such claim.
What I've noted is that you have not substantiated that first and/or second and/or third and/or forth Maccabees was accepted by Judaism or Christianity. You and Nathan just keep repeating the claim that "it" was - but never have even tried to substantiate that, as if the claim is thus an indisputable fact exempt from accountability.
Brother, it is NO ONE'S responsibility to disprove your claim. You have epistemology reversed. It is YOUR responsibility to prove it true. And friend, questions substantiate only one thing: your ability to ask it.
Now again, brother,
No one denies that there were writings in ancient times.
No one denies that folks sometimes read writings. Even used them and quoted them.
No one denies that some writings contained history, even accurate history, even history that involved Jews and/or Christians.
No one denies that you can find a tiny number of people - even famous people - who called some of these 'Scripture."
But none of that proves that Judaism and/or Christianity accepted first and/or second and/or third and/or forth Maccabees as such. Or even that more than a dozen people on the planet at the time personally held to such an opinion;. You know that. We all do.
IF you want to substantiate that
Judaism and Jews accepted a writing as the inerrant, canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God (Scripture) equal to the Five Books of Moses you need either 1) some OFFICIAL, formal, authoritative declaration of some ruling Body of that entire religion, something PAN-JEWISH that all Jews accepted and accept. OR you need proof that every Jewish PERSON so accepted it at the time. Not 2 or 5 but all of them. #2 is of course impossible. I'm not sure, but for #1, I'm not sure there ever was or is now such a body.
IF you want to substantiate that
Christianity and Christians accepted a writing as the inerrant, canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God (Scripture) equal to say Paul's Epistle to the Romans you need either 1) some OFFICIAL, formal, authoritative declaration of some ruling Body of that entire religion, something PAN-Christian (East and West, Greek and Latin.... from England to Egypt) that all Christians accepted (the only
possible candidate for that would be one of the Seven Ecumenical Councils) and accept. OR you need proof that every Christian PERSON so accepted it at the time. Not 2 or 5 but all of them. #2 is of course impossible. I'm not sure, but you could look to official rulings of the Seven Ecumenical Councils. I'll save you the time. I've studied them all. None of them said or discussed ANYTHING about the canon.
See post 243
IMO, the reason Nathan won't offer anything to substantiate his claim is that (as he knows) he doesn't have anything. He has his opinion (which he states as unaccountable FACT that's true so it's true) and circular reasoning from that. YES, he can show people read and used and quoted some book..... yes he can show there's accurate history contained there.... yes, he can show it was translated into other languages... yes, he can show 1 or 2 people who called it "Scripture." But brother, the same can be said of many other books and NONE of that substantiates his point, a point you echo for reasons I do not know.
Now, Andrew, I agree that at at least one of the Maccabee books is good reading, important reading!! I agree with Martin Luther and the Anglican Church that it SHOULD be in tomes and in the Lectionary! I agree it is unfortunate that many modern American, Canadian and European "Evangelicals" are not only ignorant of it but blatantly repudiate it. My Lutheran church did an extensive study of it during our Sunday Pastor's Class.... the LCMS publishing house has study material of it. But friend, none of that establishes that JUDAISM and/or CHRISTIANITY ever decreed that it is The inerrant, canonical, normative, divinely-inscripturated words of God. That, brother, is a whole other enchilada.... and one you cannot prove is the case.
Now, back to the claim: That one of the Maccabee books MUST be the inerrant, canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and all Christians must agree BECAUSE it's one of the books that records an historical event which Jews even today celebrate.
You've presented NOTHING to substantiate it. You just keep posting that all Jews and Christians accepted it as Scripture so it was Scripture.
YES, Jesus and all Jews today celebrate an event which many books (including at least one of the books with "Maccabees" in the moniker) record. Yup.
No one doubts that. I had a Jewish friend in college who celebrated that event. Now, How does the reality that many Jews celebrate an event PROVE that every history book that mentions that event
THEREFORE must be The inerrant, canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God (Scripture) and must be seen as such by Christians and in every tome with "BIBLE' on the cover? How does the reality that Jesus and my friend David celebrate the event prove that books that speak of that event MUST therefore be canon Scripture? Brother, it seems to me that an historical event can be true WITHOUT it being mandated that all accept any book that mentions it as therefore be accepted as the inerrant, canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God, and it being mandated to be in every tome with "BIBLE" written on the cover or used by Jews or Christians.
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