Nathan,
You make several REMARKABLE mistakes....
1. You ASSUME that if some writing is read or quoted or used or even just translated into another language, ERGO it just HAS to be embraced by every believer (Jew or Christian) as The canonical, inerrant, divinely-inscripturated words of God (Scripture). You go on and on and on - endlessly - about how something was read or quoted or referenced, as if that proves ANYTHING WHATSOEVER (which we all realize, it does not). And you are incredibly inconsistent in the application of this silly assumption, because there are LOTS of writings that Jews and Christians read, use, quote and some even call "SCRIPTURE" that you reject as Scripture. You reject your own foundational apologetic - but demand that we accept it. THINK.
2. You ASSUME that if some writing contains history (at least accurate history) then ERGO it just HAS to be embraced by every believer (Jew and Christian) as The canonical, inerrant, divinely-inscripturated words of God (Scripture). You go on and on and on and on - endlessly - about how some writing has accurate history in it and thus must be canonical Scripture. It's beyond silly. And here again, you are amazingly inconsistent on how you apply your own apologetic - there are MILLIONS of history books, full of accurate history, that you don't accept as Scripture so there goes your entire argument. Josephus wrote MUCH history about Judaism and yet you don't accept his writings as Scripture. You don't accept your OWN apologetic - yet demand everyone else does. THINK.
3. You ASSUME that if the words " CHURCH COUNCIL" are used, it therefore MUST be a pan-Christian, ecumenical, binding, authoritative body for all Christians and all Christian must docilicly submit to it. Is it possible to be more laughable? More absurd? More silly in your assumption? The Catholic Church discovered the 3 "councils" you keep referencing but at least acknowledge their very limited role, you don't. Just because there's a church council doesn't mean much. There are perhaps MILLIONS of church council meetings every month - perhaps just in the USA. My parish has one on the First Thursday of every month. It's called the "CHURCH COUNCIL." But is it ecumenical - including every Christian bishop, every diocese? No, just our parish. Is it binding beyond our parish? No. Last month the CHURCH COUNCIL decided to buy a new photocopier, so is every Christian parish on the planet Earth ergo required to buy a new copier? Did yours? THINK, my brother! Hello, McFly! THINK. None of those little, obscure "councils" you note (long forgotten, little known until the Catholic Church dug them up in the 16th Century) were ecumenical meetings. None of them were binding (certainly not outside that diocese). And none of them said "these are the canonical Scriptures" they at most said "these are the books that may be used for the Lectionary of the Sunday Mass for this jurisdiction, for now anyway." Apples and oranges. And here again, you are very contradictory in your application. You insists ALL must docilicly submit to every meeting called "COUNCIL" but you don't, I'm not even sure you submit to the Seven ECUMENICAL Councils, you insist we all do what you may not do EVER (except for singular misunderstood things from 3 diocese meetings) You want EVERYONE to consider ALL and ANY meeting of the Latin Church as fully binding.... definitive.... authoritative.... ecumenical. But you don't. I don't know if you docilicly accept ANY meeting of ANY diocese of the Catholic Church.... perhaps you only accept ANY meeting when you just happen to personally, currently agree with it - thus you being the authority and applauding meetings that echo you. Since you don't accept all CHURCH COUNCIL meetings (did you buy a new photocopier?) ... since you aren't docilicly obedient to all meetings of the Latin church, it's just beyond silly to require everyone else does what you don't do.
All this is combined with radical "circular reasoning" - you ASSUME some book is Scripture then try to argue that therefore it's Scripture. People keep calling you on this but you don't care.
And all this is combined with claims that are OBVIOUSLY absurd. As in "The book of Hebrews has a book reference to Second Maccabees" You said that was fact until you finally had to admit Hebrews doesn't so much has MENTION Maccabees - the word never even appears in Hebrews, ever, for anything, about anything. But rather than admit your obvious falsehood, you tried to say that if some unknown author - at least 1600 years later - puts in a reference in marginal notes of a study edition of a translation - THAT's also canonical, inerrant, universally binding, divinely-inscripturated words of God. How remarkably silly. And inconsistent, because my Concordia Study Bible has a LOT of marginal notes that I doubt you accept as canonical Scripture (Or at all). So many times, you yourself finally proved yourself flat out wrong, just echoing a falsehood. I think you've burned a lot of bridges with the posters here.
Now, Nathen I agree that at at least one of the Maccabee books is good reading, important reading! I agree with Martin Luther and the Anglican Church that it SHOULD be in tomes and in the Sunday Lectionary! I agree it is unfortunate that many modern American, Canadian and European "Evangelicals" are not only ignorant of it but blatantly repudiate it. My Lutheran church did an extensive study of it during our Sunday Pastor's Class.... the LCMS publishing house has study material of it. But brother, none of that establishes that JUDAISM and/or CHRISTIANITY ever decreed that that any or all of the 4 Maccabee books are The inerrant, canonical, normative, divinely-inscripturated words of God. That, brother, is a whole other enchilada.... and one you have not proven is the case. Your point that some books may not be Scripture but yet still good to read is valid. Your claims about canonicity for some are baseless (or worse).
Now, back to the claim: That one of the Maccabee books MUST be the inerrant, canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and all Christians must agree BECAUSE it's one of the books that records an historical event which Jews even today celebrate.
You've presented NOTHING to substantiate it. You just keep posting that all Jews and Christians accepted it as Scripture so it was Scripture.
YES, generally Jews then and now celebrate an event which many books (including at least one of the books with "Maccabees" in the moniker) record. Yup. No one doubts that. I had a Jewish friend in college who celebrated that event. Now, How does the reality that many Jews celebrate an event PROVE that every history book that mentions that event THEREFORE must be The inerrant, canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God (Scripture) and must be seen as such by Christians and in every tome with "BIBLE' on the cover? How does the reality that Jesus and my friend David celebrate the event prove that books that speak of that event MUST therefore be canon Scripture? Brother, it seems to me that an historical event can be true WITHOUT it being mandated that all accept any book that mentions it as therefore be accepted as the inerrant, canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God, and it being mandated to be in every tome with "BIBLE" written on the cover or used by Jews or Christians.
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