RANSOM FOR MANY OR ALL ?

bbas 64

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bbas 64

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I'm wondering if you believe in Original Sin? I guess that's what needs to be asked.

Good Day, Lil Lamb
Sure do...

We sin because we are sinners...
 

bbas 64

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I find that impossible. If the sins of most people are excluded, then not all sins are included, unless all for whom Christ did not die were sinless.






No one at this website is a universalist; certainly not me.

We do have a radical Calvinist who seems to argue that faith is irrelevant to anything and thus if Christ died for one, ergo that one is saved whether or not they have faith (the position that caused many Calvinists to become universalists in the 17th and 18th Centuries - New England for example is full of Universalist Fellowships that were once strongly Calvinist churches, including the one at Plymouth founded by the Pilgrims). But nonetheless, he doesn't claim to be a universalist.

I agree with you: if there is no faith, there is no justification. But I find that entirely unrelated to whether Christ died for all. IMO, Christ DID die for all which means ALL who have faith are therefore grasping/trusting/relying on something real exists for them.







Yup. All of them. But they are there not because Jesus didn't die for them but because they lacked faith. I hold to the Reformation view of Justification: Sola Gratia - Solus Christus - Sola Fide, not just Sola Gratia - Solus Christus. I reject that faith is irrelevant or that there is justification apart from faith.

Dr, Cooper gets into this point briefly in the video I shared, noting Scripture on this very point.



@Bill;

This is 36 minutes long and only audio, but Bill, I think this is quite insightful and helpful. If you have 36 minutes for this, this is good. https://issuesetc.org/2014/12/16/2-...sm-limited-atonement-pr-jordan-cooper-121614/




.


Good Day, Josiah

I respect issues not that I always agree with their guests. ... so I will listen


The last 20 -25 mins or so of this Jordan is on the phone and looking at some of the texts he refers to and his handling of the written text of Scripture.




In Him,

Bill
 

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Good Day, Lazy Suesun

See "you" 2nd person pronoun accusative case plural refers to who/ what?

In Him,

Bill
Good day,
Please see the reference I shared regarding the scripture and the Greek.
 

Lamb

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Good Day, Lil Lamb
Sure do...

We sin because we are sinners...

Okay so if there are 10 people then there are 10 people in need of forgiveness from the cross automatically. Jesus did that. For all.
 

bbas 64

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Good day,
Please see the reference I shared regarding the scripture and the Greek.


Good Day, Lazy Suesun

I did so here is the pronoun.. to who/ or what does this pronoun refer?

1594125128800.png
 

bbas 64

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Okay so if there are 10 people then there are 10 people in need of forgiveness from the cross automatically. Jesus did that. For all.

Good Day, Lil Lamby

You are reading you assertion in to the text...

He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

He turns away God's just wrath for sin, the sin of the whole world not every sinner ( your assertion) in the world.


If there are 10 sins in the world in total... and only 10 people in the world

Person 1-9 commits a single sin that numbered 1-9, but the 10th person commits all 10 sins, how may people does Jesus have to atone for the sins of the whole world?




In Him

Bill
 

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Okay so if there are 10 people then there are 10 people in need of forgiveness from the cross automatically. Jesus did that. For all.
If Jesus paid for all sins and forgave all humanity from the cross, then all humanity will be with Jesus in heaven. That is the conclusion to the person who demands a universal "all."

Now, I will wait for the response of..."but humans reject this forgiveness, which is why they go to hell."
Of course that means that human will power is stronger than God's will and thus proves the assertion from 2 Peter 3:9 to be false. The misused interpretation of 2 Peter 3:9 is that God does not will that any should perish, yet many perish and thus God's will is not as powerful as man's will.

However, when we recognize the context of scripture, we realize that the passages talking about salvation and using the word "all" are referring to all those who will believe. As we understand context, we see God's full authority and Sovereignty in choosing so that all whom the Father has given to Jesus will be saved, will be forgiven and will be sanctified.

The issue comes down to whether a person will view scripture with the understanding that all of life is entirely in God's hands and in God's control or whether a person will view scripture with the idea that humans are in control of themselves and God is just an advisor.

I believe the first. Thus, humans cannot "out will" or overthrow the will of God.

God, by his will, ransomed all those who will believe. He did not ransom those who will not believe.
 

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Good Day, Lil Lamby

You are reading you assertion in to the text...

He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

He turns away God's just wrath for sin, the sin of the whole world not every sinner ( your assertion) in the world.


If there are 10 sins in the world in total... and only 10 people in the world

Person 1-9 commits a single sin that numbered 1-9, but the 10th person commits all 10 sins, how may people does Jesus have to atone for the sins of the whole world?




In Him

Bill
Bill, one sin or ten sins is irrelevant. Christ must ransom all sin. If Jesus died for all sins and effectually paid for them all and forgave them all, then all person's are redeemed in full. They are all found in Christ. There is no "Christ died for all, but only some are saved."
 

Josiah

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Bill,


He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. He turns away God's just wrath for sin, the sin of the whole world not every sinner ( your assertion) in the world.


So, there are some of the world that are not sinners? I think THAT was Lamb's point in asking if you believe in original sin; if you do then you hold that every man, woman and child in the world ("ALL") are sinners. Thus, since Jesus died for all sins (which earlier our Calvinist friend insisted IS the case) then He died for all sinners, which means all in the world. I think that was Lamb's point and it seems valid to me.



how may people does Jesus have to atone for the sins of the whole world?


If He died for all sins, He died for all sinners. And since you hold that ALL people on the planet are sinners, well.....

Perhaps there are two options: 1) All for whom Jesus did not die have no sin, they lack a sinful nature and thus never sin, thus Jesus didn't need to die for them and thus did not. 2) Jesus died for all sin, as our friend insists IS the case, and since all have sin, He died for all. Which seems to me is what the Bible says and as far as I know, all Christianity affirmed and believed for over 1500 years and nearly all still do. Now, are all thus personally justified? No, because not all have faith. Thus, the reason not all are saved is not because Jesus didn't die for them but because they don't apprehend/trust/rely upon that. IMO, faith is the variable, not Jesus or the Cross.



Particular,

If Jesus died for all sins and effectually paid for them all and forgave them all, then all person's are redeemed in full.


AGAIN, your very fundamental flaw is your repudiation and elimination of faith in justification, your grave error that if Jesus died for someone, ERGO they are personally justified whether they are a Satanist or Atheist or Muslim or Voodooist since faith is irrelevant. Friend, John 3:16 does not state, "For God so loved the world that He sent His only begotten son that whether or not they have faith, all shall not perish but have eternal life." Friend, read the verse.... just read the words, those black-and-white things formed by letters, what we call "Scripture" (as in ONLY SCRIPTURE), When one eliminates any part of Sola Gratia - Solus Christus - Sola Fide (as you do the last part), horrible heresy results.

Yes, Jesus' act means justification is THERE for all people..... but that alone does not result in personal justification because contrary to your doctrine, faith IS relevant, ".... that whosoever believes."

An illustration: Again, let's say I buy you a 2020 Corvette. I DID that, it's an objective and historic fact. So when I offer it to you, I'm not lying to you, I'm not offering you something I cannot deliever because I never bought you one, I did what I said and did not lie or deceive you (as Calvinists do when they OFFER salvation to people even though they believe it doesn't exist for most people, they do this in the name of God making God the deceiver, the liar). Now, if you apprehend/trust/rely upon my free gift - then it's personally yours and you benefit from it. But if you lack faith/trust/reliance/apprehension.... you never accept it....you never sign the paperwork and receive the keys... your Corvette (a free gift from me) just sits in my garage unaccepted, then you don't benefit from it never receive it. Because you don't personally have it does NOT mandate that I lied about about, that I never actually had it to give to you. Logically, it is not necessary for you to commit the heresy of denying the role of faith (and open the door to universalism, a door so many Calvinists have gone through). The reason not all are personally justified is not because of the absence of the Cross but the absence of faith. It's not necessary to deny the Gospel and repudiate SO, SO many clear and undeniable Scriptures to deny Jesus and His work (and create the HORRIBLE terror of this invention 500 years ago by a few radical Calvinists).



1 John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

Hebrews 2:9 But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.

2 Corinthians 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for all

2 Corinthians 5:15 And he died for all

Isaiah 53:6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned—every one—to his own way; and the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all.

1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself as a ransom for all.


.... and many, many more that state the same reality.


Let's see the verse that states, "Jesus did NOT die for all people but ONLY and EXCLUSIVELY for a few."




This may help you: https://essays.wls.wels.net/bitstre...90/RhyneSubjective.pdf?sequence=1&isAllowed=y




Blessings!


Josiah



.
 
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bbas 64

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Bill,





So, there are some of the world that are not sinners? I think THAT was Lamb's point in asking if you believe in original sin; if you do then you hold that every man, woman and child in the world ("ALL") are sinners. Thus, since Jesus died for all sins (which earlier our Calvinist friend insisted IS the case) then He died for all sinners, which means all in the world.






If He died for all sins, He died for all sinners. And since you hold that ALL people on the planet are sinners, well.....

Perhaps there are two options: 1) All for whom Jesus did not die have no sin, they lack a sinful nature and thus never sin, thus Jesus didn't need to die for them and thus did not. 2) Jesus died for all sin, as our friend insists IS the case, and since all have sin, He died for all. Which seems to me is what the Bible says and as far as I know, all Christianity affirmed and believed for over 1500 years and nearly all still do. Now, are all thus personally justified? No, because not all have faith. Thus, the reason not all are saved is not because Jesus didn't die for them but because they don't apprehend/trust/rely upon that. IMO, faith is the variable, not Jesus or the Cross.



Particular,




AGAIN
, your very fundamental flaw is your repudiation and elimination of faith in justification, your grave error that if Jesus died for someone, ERGO they are personally justified whether they are a Satanist or Atheist or Muslim or Voodooist since faith is irrelevant. Friend, John 3:16 does not state, "For God so loved the world that He sent His only begotten son that whether or not they have faith, all shall not perish but have eternal life." Friend, read the verse.... just read the words, those black-and-white things formed by letters, what we call "Scripture" (as in ONLY SCRIPTURE), When one eliminates any part of Sola Gratia - Solus Christus - Sola Fide (as you do the last part), horrible heresy results.

Yes, Jesus' act means justification is THERE for all people..... but that alone does not result in personal justification because contrary to your doctrine, faith IS relevant, ".... that whosoever believes."

An illustration: Again, let's say I buy you a 2020 Corvette. I DID that, it's an objective and historic fact. So when I offer it to you, I'm not lying to you, I'm not offering you something I cannot deliever because I never bought you one, I did what I said and did not lie or deceive you (as Calvinists do when they OFFER salvation to people even though they believe it doesn't exist for most people, they do this in the name of God making God the deceiver, the liar). Now, if you apprehend/trust/rely upon my free gift - then it's personally yours and you benefit from it. But if you lack faith/trust/reliance/apprehension.... you never accept it....you never sign the paperwork and receive the keys... your Corvette (a free gift from me) just sits in my garage unaccepted, then you don't benefit from it never receive it. Because you don't personally have it does NOT mandate that I lied about about, that I never actually had it to give to you. Logically, it is not necessary for you to commit the heresy of denying the role of faith (and open the door to universalism, a door so many Calvinists have gone through). The reason not all are personally justified is not because of the absence of the Cross but the absence of faith. It's not necessary to deny the Gospel and repudiate SO, SO many clear and undeniable Scriptures to deny Jesus and His work (and create the HORRIBLE terror of this invention 500 years ago by a few radical Calvinists).



1 John 2:2
He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

Hebrews 2:9
But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.

2 Corinthians 5:14
For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for all

2 Corinthians 5:15
And he died for all

Isaiah 53:6
All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned—every one—to his own way; and the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all.

1 Timothy 2:6
Who gave himself as a ransom for all.


.... and many, many more that state the same reality.


Let's see the verse that states, "Jesus did NOT die for all people but ONLY and EXCLUSIVELY for a few."




Blessings!


Josiah



.


Good Day, Josiah

The constitutive nature of Faith, is certainly not the question as to relates to your misunderstanding of this text.

But the real work of Christ as it relates to his work of "turning away the wrath of God" and the price he paid to ransom is more than acceptable to the Father, he did not pay it to us ( we do not get to accept or reject the payment) it was made to the Father. He is the kinsmen redeemer for his people he pays the price and redeems them with out fail.

You believe that he paid the price to turn away God's just wrath and that payment was not sufficient to ensure redemption of His people. Because the Wrath of God is still upon them in Hell, so they were not redeemed by his work.

Yes .. again we are born sinners...

Christ died for the sins in the whole world, but does not nor intend to ransom all people with out distinction and is not therefore everyone redeemer. Unless of course you think he failed to fulfill the purpose for which he died namely to ransom everyone.

He died for every sin in the world... but not to redeem and ransom every single sinner in the world.



In Him,

Bill
 

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You believe that he paid the price to turn away God's just wrath and that payment was not sufficient to ensure redemption of His people. Because the Wrath of God is still upon them in Hell, so they were not redeemed by his work.


No, not at all. My view is entirely different from that. See post 70 (including what I wrote to Particular). Perhaps read the article linked.

What I believe is that Jesus died for all, and that this IS sufficient. What I reject is that Jesus died for ONLY a few and not the rest.




Christ died for the sins in the whole world


Agreed. But do you believe that all people are sinners and thus Jesus died for all people? That's the issue here: Did Jesus die for all or for a few?


- Josiah




.
 

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Bill,





So, there are some of the world that are not sinners? I think THAT was Lamb's point in asking if you believe in original sin; if you do then you hold that every man, woman and child in the world ("ALL") are sinners. Thus, since Jesus died for all sins (which earlier our Calvinist friend insisted IS the case) then He died for all sinners, which means all in the world. I think that was Lamb's point and it seems valid to me.






If He died for all sins, He died for all sinners. And since you hold that ALL people on the planet are sinners, well.....

Perhaps there are two options: 1) All for whom Jesus did not die have no sin, they lack a sinful nature and thus never sin, thus Jesus didn't need to die for them and thus did not. 2) Jesus died for all sin, as our friend insists IS the case, and since all have sin, He died for all. Which seems to me is what the Bible says and as far as I know, all Christianity affirmed and believed for over 1500 years and nearly all still do. Now, are all thus personally justified? No, because not all have faith. Thus, the reason not all are saved is not because Jesus didn't die for them but because they don't apprehend/trust/rely upon that. IMO, faith is the variable, not Jesus or the Cross.



Particular,




AGAIN
, your very fundamental flaw is your repudiation and elimination of faith in justification, your grave error that if Jesus died for someone, ERGO they are personally justified whether they are a Satanist or Atheist or Muslim or Voodooist since faith is irrelevant. Friend, John 3:16 does not state, "For God so loved the world that He sent His only begotten son that whether or not they have faith, all shall not perish but have eternal life." Friend, read the verse.... just read the words, those black-and-white things formed by letters, what we call "Scripture" (as in ONLY SCRIPTURE), When one eliminates any part of Sola Gratia - Solus Christus - Sola Fide (as you do the last part), horrible heresy results.

Yes, Jesus' act means justification is THERE for all people..... but that alone does not result in personal justification because contrary to your doctrine, faith IS relevant, ".... that whosoever believes."

An illustration: Again, let's say I buy you a 2020 Corvette. I DID that, it's an objective and historic fact. So when I offer it to you, I'm not lying to you, I'm not offering you something I cannot deliever because I never bought you one, I did what I said and did not lie or deceive you (as Calvinists do when they OFFER salvation to people even though they believe it doesn't exist for most people, they do this in the name of God making God the deceiver, the liar). Now, if you apprehend/trust/rely upon my free gift - then it's personally yours and you benefit from it. But if you lack faith/trust/reliance/apprehension.... you never accept it....you never sign the paperwork and receive the keys... your Corvette (a free gift from me) just sits in my garage unaccepted, then you don't benefit from it never receive it. Because you don't personally have it does NOT mandate that I lied about about, that I never actually had it to give to you. Logically, it is not necessary for you to commit the heresy of denying the role of faith (and open the door to universalism, a door so many Calvinists have gone through). The reason not all are personally justified is not because of the absence of the Cross but the absence of faith. It's not necessary to deny the Gospel and repudiate SO, SO many clear and undeniable Scriptures to deny Jesus and His work (and create the HORRIBLE terror of this invention 500 years ago by a few radical Calvinists).



1 John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

Hebrews 2:9 But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.

2 Corinthians 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for all

2 Corinthians 5:15 And he died for all

Isaiah 53:6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned—every one—to his own way; and the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all.

1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself as a ransom for all.


.... and many, many more that state the same reality.


Let's see the verse that states, "Jesus did NOT die for all people but ONLY and EXCLUSIVELY for a few."




This may help you: https://essays.wls.wels.net/bitstre...90/RhyneSubjective.pdf?sequence=1&isAllowed=y




Blessings!


Josiah



.
Josiah, your assertion about faith and my position is utterly wrong.
Also, your assertion that if Jesus did not die for a person's sins, that makes them perfect, is entirely backward to what the Bible teaches.

Josiah, a person cannot have faith, unless God graciously gives that person the gift of faith. Therefore, people who are dead in their trespasses and sins cannot exert faith, until God makes them alive with Christ. This is obvious in Ephesians 2:1-9.

Now, if you wish to promote universalism, keep your present position because you are presently supporting universalism.
 

Particular

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Jesus died for all those the Father has given him. Those whom the Father has given were chosen before the foundation of the world. These truths are firmly taught by Jesus and the Apostles according to God's inspiration.
 

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That's the issue here: Did Jesus die for all or for a few?


- Josiah




.
Why would it be a debate? God's word is clear. Jesus died once and for all!
 

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Jesus died for all those the Father has given him. Those whom the Father has given were chosen before the foundation of the world. These truths are firmly taught by Jesus and the Apostles according to God's inspiration.
You're a Calvinist then?
 

Josiah

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Josiah, a person cannot have faith, unless God graciously gives that person the gift of faith.


Agreed. How does that substantiate the invention in the 16th Century of a few radical Calvinists that Jesus died only for a few and not for all? You are just trying to change the subject to whether Christ DIED for all to whether the Spirit gives FAITH to all. Nice diversion attempt but that's all it is.



Therefore, people who are dead in their trespasses and sins cannot exert faith, until God makes them alive with Christ. This is obvious in Ephesians 2:1-9.


Agreed. How does that substantiate the invention in the 16th Century of a few radical Calvinists that Jesus died only for a few and not for all?




Now, if you wish to promote universalism, keep your present position because you are presently supporting universalism.


Obviously not, since I do NOT hold that all for whom Christ died are personally justified R're EGARDLESS of whether they have faith, I'm NOT the one twisting John 3:16 to say, "For God so loved a tiny unknowable few that He gave ONLY to them His only begotten son and thus those few are saved whether they are Satanists, Atheists, Muslims or worshipers of Porsches." I'm holding to SOLA GRATIA - SOLUS CHRISTUS - SOLA FIDE.


So far, you have not quoted a single verse that I have not fully agreed with, but you keep "spinning" the MANY verses I share inside out and upside down until they "mean" the exact opposite of what they undeniably, clearly, boldly, verbatim state. Meanwhile, your whole dogma of ONLY, Christ died for ONLY some... you can't find ANY verse that remotely states that. We're waiting the Scripture (you know, words on a page) that states, "No, Jesus did NOT die for all, Jesus died for ONLY some people."




1 John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

Hebrews 2:9 But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.

2 Corinthians 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for all

2 Corinthians 5:15 And he died for all

Isaiah 53:6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned—every one—to his own way; and the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all.

1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself as a ransom for all.


.... and many, many more that state the same reality.


Let's see the verse that states, "Jesus did NOT die for all people but ONLY and EXCLUSIVELY for a few."





.
 

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I think at this stage a matter of clarity should be interjected. Firstly, if one is led to believe Jesus died only for the elect, or those he predetermined would be saved from their sins, and this before he created anything at all, then the teachings of the Apostle peter in 2 Peter 3:9 is a falsehood.

Further, it would mean that God also predestined , predetermined, people would be born for the express purpose of going to Hell according to his pre-planning. That also does not comport with 2 Peter 3:9 nor does it comport with John 3:16, which is sustained by Romans 5 and 10.
Imagine an omniscient power that predestines people to go to heaven or hell before people are created.
This means that all that pertains to salvation and damnation were also predetermined by that same creator. Which means Satan, Sin, the fall.

That then refutes what God says of himself in John 4:16.

The simple truth of God as Christ should suffice. I think we err when we follow men and their interpretation through amalgamation of scripture by their own design, and then identify with a particular man orchestrated denomination.
We leave the truth of God as Christ and enter into man made functions in the name of Christ.

What denomination was Jesus?
Exactly.
 

Josiah

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Yes
@BILL;

This is 9 minutes long ....and there's stuff here only partly relevant to THIS specific discussion, but I think it may help you understand the other position to Calvin's invention. Do check it out:

Perhaps THEN my "corvette" illustration will make sense....


Then if you are up for it (and it's 16 minutes long!) consider this:






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