Jesus died for the sins of the world

Doran

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Hey, you UAB's how come Jesus in John 17 limited his prayer to the elect and excluded the very world that you insist he died for? Any rationale, coherent explanations?
 

Doran

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There goes the "L" in TULIP. The Limited atonement. The dogma that Jesus did NOT die for all but ONLY for some, for those who eventually would be given faith ("the Elect") and that agree that number is a very, very small percentage of the population.

Since no Anti-Calvin theorist has a single Scripture that states their new invention, they are forced to reference Scriptures that do not state their horrible invention. Matthew 20:28 is their favorite. But of course, as everyone knows, it does not state that Jesus did not die for all but rather only for some few. It does say "many". The Greek word "polloi" does not exactly mean "all" but it is the antonym for "few" and thus contradicts the horrible view of Limited Atonement. And this Greek word almost always is used to show inclusiveness (not the exclusiveness these radical Anti-Calvin folks wish it did). In the LXX, it is the word used for the Hebrew "rabbim" which is THE most inclusive word in the Hebrew language.




It also doesn't say "ONLY for some." Your entire position is ONLY SOME. Without the "only" and then who that "only" is, your position is completely missing.




.
Know my entire position is Rev 7:9. Why do you persist in putting words into my mouth? I never said Christ died for some or few.
 

Doran

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UABs....I'm still waiting on an answer to my question about the elect. Who are they? And how do they attain to that status?
 

Doran

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UAB's who are the people in Rev 7:9? If saints, did Christ atone for their sins?
 

Doran

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UABs: How do you reconcile all the various "many" passages with all the various passages that you interpret as "all" in the distributive sense?
 

Doran

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Hey, UAB's how come you never tackled the two scriptures in my 886? What's taking you so long?
 

Josiah

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Know my entire position is Rev 7:9.


Ah, then you've completely abandoned Limited Atonement. And you are FINALLY in agreement with us. We ALL agree, 100%, with Revelation 7:9.

Here's your "entire position" on the extent of Jesus' work on the Cross:
"After this I looked, and behold, a great multitude that no one could number, from every nation, from all tribes and peoples and languages, standing before the throne and before the Lamb, clothed in white robes, with palm branches in their hands.
"


Okay. Nothing there that repudiates all the verses that teach that Jesus died for all Nothing there that supports the horrible invention of some anti-Calvin folks that Jesus did not die for all but only for some few.


I guess we're done. You've completely abandoned your previous positions.



Doran said:
Rev 7:9? If saints, did Christ atone for their sins?

Of course. Saints are part of all. What is missing from this text is the position you now repudiate and reject, that He died for ONLY some.



.
 
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Josiah

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@Doran

Doran said:


So...the ball is in your court. You need to come up with a one passage -- just one -- ONE -- that says Christ died for sinners


Sure, just a few off the top of my head....'

Romans 3:23, "For all have sinned."

Romans 3:10, "No one is righteous, no, not even one."

1 Corinthians 15:3, "For I delivered to you as the matter of highest importance, that Christ died for our sins in accordance with Scriptures."

1 Timothy 1:15, "This saying is trustworthy and deserving of full acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners."

Romans 5:6, "Christ died for the ungodly."

Romans 3:23-24, "For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God and are justified by his grace as a gift through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus."


Just a few.... I'm sure there are many more and perhaps better ones, these are just off the top of my head.


So... the ball is in your court.
You need to come up with one passage - just one - that states...
"Christ did not die for sinners."
"Christ did not die for all people but ONLY for ______________."
"Christ died for many people but NOT for all."



Doran said:
how come you never tackled the two scriptures in my 886?

Addressed many times. Yes, it's true, neither says Jesus did not die for all but ONLY for (you won't say).



Doran said:

Let's do as you request, compare the number of Scripture about the death of Jesus and see how many say "He did for all" with those that state, "No, He ONLY died for (You don't want to say)?

"ALL": AT least 3
"ONLY ______" : Zero


When you find a Scripture that states "Jesus did not die for all but ONLY for _____________" then the score will be you:1, me: 3. And then we'll finally know ONLY whom.






.
 

Albion

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Since there is no passage in scripture that teaches universal atonement for all...
I suppose that "universal" atonement would mean "all" of them, that's right. :giggle:

But what happened to your insistence that "all" doesn't really mean "all?" Are we making progress?
 

Doran

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UABs, here's another question for you. Since God never intended to save all men, without exception, explain how without that kind of intentionaltiy it makes any sense for God to send his Son to die for all those who he never intended to save?

Moreover, how does it make any sense for God to send Jesus to die for all without exception when God knows that not only won't all be saved but he knows in eternity precisely who will be and who will not be saved?
 

Doran

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I suppose that "universal" atonement would mean "all" of them, that's right. :giggle:

But what happened to your insistence that "all" doesn't really mean "all?" Are we making progress?
Oh but I do believe Christ died for all... qualitatively. For example, he died for ALL his elect. All his sheep. For all whom the Father gave him. For the entire church. For all God's covenant people. For all of His friends.
 

Doran

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quote]Doran said:


how come you never tackled the two scriptures in my 886?

[/QUOTE]
Josiah: Addressed many times.

Post number(s), please. You also claimed that you addressed my question about Rev 7:9. I asked you for that post number also. Crickets is what I got for an answer.
 

Doran

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@Doran




Josiah: Sure, just a few off the top of my head....'

Romans 3:23, "For all have sinned."

Romans 3:10, "No one is righteous, no, not even one."

1 Corinthians 15:3, "For I delivered to you as the matter of highest importance, that Christ died for our sins in accordance with Scriptures."

1 Timothy 1:15, "This saying is trustworthy and deserving of full acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners."

Romans 5:6, "Christ died for the ungodly."

Romans 3:23-24, "For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God and are justified by his grace as a gift through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus."


Just a few.... I'm sure there are many more and perhaps better ones, these are just off the top of my head.

Wow! I'm impressed. I asked for one and you gave me six. (y) And it might surprise you that I agree with those passages. So...this is good news. We finally have found some common ground. We have found something with which we can both agree. And you obviously know what an explicit passage is.

Now...let's see if we can make further progress. Do you think that the world is filled with sinners? I have to think that if you believe Rom 3:10ff., for example, that you would have to answer, "yes"? But I don't want to put words into your mouth. So what sayest thou?
 

Doran

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quote]Doran said:
how come Jesus in John 17 limited his prayer to the elect and excluded the very world that you insist he died for?[/quote]


Josiah: How desperate.

So, when I pray for my youngest son, that proves that I hate my older son? Jesus also prayed for Jerusalem, does that prove He ONLY died for those residing in that city? Come on. Where are you getting this silliness?

But Jesus died for each and every person in the world, didn't he? So, why would he explicitly and intentionally and deliberately omit the world from his prayer and pray only for the two groups (for elect Jews and elect Gentiles)? He's very close to being hung on the cross and in one of is last prayers to his Father here on earth, he explicitly omits the world? Why? What the prayer does prove is that he prayed ONLY for the elect! How could this be, if he died for every man, woman and child on the planet? He actually omitted a very large percentage of the world! His prayer was rather discriminatory, I might add.

My position presents no problem with Jesus' prayer because he died only for MANY and earlier today I posted several explicit passages that narrow down precisely who the many are.

I'm not the one who is desperate here. You are by ignoring what John 17 says and giving me a non-answer.
 

Doran

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Josiah: Not that you'll read this.


There goes the "L" in TULIP. The Limited atonement. The dogma that Jesus did NOT die for all but ONLY for some, for those who eventually would be given faith ("the Elect") and that agree that number is a very, very small percentage of the population.

Since no Anti-Calvin theorist has a single Scripture that states their new invention, they are forced to reference Scriptures that do not state their horrible invention. Matthew 20:28 is their favorite. But of course, as everyone knows, it does not state that Jesus did not die for all but rather only for some few. It does say "many". The Greek word "polloi" does not exactly mean "all" but it is the antonym for "few" and thus contradicts the horrible view of Limited Atonement. And this Greek word almost always is used to show inclusiveness (not the exclusiveness these radical Anti-Calvin folks wish it did). In the LXX, it is the word used for the Hebrew "rabbim" which is THE most inclusive word in the Hebrew language.

That you don't even know what the "L" means in TULIP just confirms that this is a topic about which you know very little.

No, the "dogma" is that Jesus died for many. You need to quote the passage from which you get the idea of "few". Do you get that from Rev 7:9?

Also, whether you know it or not, YOU also believe in limited atonement, since you limit the extent QUALITATIVELY. You believe Christ died for all qauantitatively, while simultaneously limiting its effect qualitatively to ONLY those who repent and believe. So...to play your silly game: Jesus died for all while only an "unknown few" benefit from his death.

I asked you about the "L" dogma because I don't like to assume anything, unlike you.
 

Doran

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@Doran

Not that you'll read this.


There goes the "L" in TULIP. The Limited atonement. The dogma that Jesus did NOT die for all but ONLY for some, for those who eventually would be given faith ("the Elect") and that agree that number is a very, very small percentage of the population.

Since no Anti-Calvin theorist has a single Scripture that states their new invention, they are forced to reference Scriptures that do not state their horrible invention. Matthew 20:28 is their favorite. But of course, as everyone knows, it does not state that Jesus did not die for all but rather only for some few. It does say "many". The Greek word "polloi" does not exactly mean "all" but it is the antonym for "few" and thus contradicts the horrible view of Limited Atonement. And this Greek word almost always is used to show inclusiveness (not the exclusiveness these radical Anti-Calvin folks wish it did). In the LXX, it is the word used for the Hebrew "rabbim" which is THE most inclusive word in the Hebrew language.

That you don't even know what the "L" means in TULIP just confirms that this is a topic about which you know very little.





It also doesn't say "ONLY for some." Your entire position is ONLY SOME. Without the "only" and then who that "only" is, your position is completely missing.


Here are the two positions:


1. Jesus died for all people.

Here are just a few of the Scriptures that state this view. The view echos them, verbatim.

1 John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

John 3:16 “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.

Hebrews 2:9 But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.

2 Corinthians 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for all

John 1:29 The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!

2 Corinthians 5:15 And he died for all

2 Corinthians 5:19 That is, in Christ God was reconciling the world to himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting to us the message of reconciliation.

1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself as a ransom for all.

and many more just like the above.

+ This view does NOT hold that all individuals have personal justification since that requires a second aspect, the divine gift of faith. BOTH the CROSS and FAITH are 100% the work and gift of God and together they bring justification (narrow sense) to the individual.

+ This view simply echos those words from the Bible. It doesn't explain anything, it doesn't deny anything, it affirms one point: Jesus died for all. It echos verbatim what God so often stated.

+ It is the view of the Early Church Fathers, of the Orthodox Church, the Catholic Church, the Anglican Church, the Lutheran Church, the Methodist Church, most Baptist churches and Evangelical churches and nearly all other denominations and faith communities. It was declared doctrine by a Church Council in the 9th Century. It was the view of John Calvin.



2. No, Jesus did NOT die for all people but ONLY for some few.
I realize you now repudiate this position, now claiming the Bible states that Jesus did not die for all but only for __________ ."



Here are the Scriptures that state this view (and your unique spin on it).

Crickets.

NOT ONE verse that even contains the word "only" in this context.
None that state ONLY the elect.
None that state ONLY for future believers.
None that state ONLY Catholic.
None that state ONLY people alive now but not future people.
None that state ONLY males.
None that state ONLY for (we won't tell you).
No ONLY at all. Ever in this context.


+ For God to be wrong in all those Scriptures that specifically, verbatim, in black-and-white words all who can read see, that Jesus died for all.... don't you need Scriptures (perhaps an equal number) that specifically, verbatim, in black-and-white words all who can read see, that Jesus did NOT die for all but ONLY for _________?"

+ There is a verse that says "Jesus died for the Elect" but none that say ONLY for the Elect. And there are verses that state that Jesus died for us (Christians) but none that state ONLY for us (indeed, see 1 John 2:2). And without the "only" the point is unsubstantiated. Apologists of this view must employ a silly logical fallacy, one illustrated by this: "Ford makes Mustangs, ergo Ford ONLY makes Mustangs." Or "Bob loves his wife, ergo he ONLY loves his wife and not his kids." Even my four year old son can see the absurdity of the logical fallacy radical, extremist Calvinists use as their apologetic for this invention. The whole apologetic has not one Scripture that states their point. It's based entirely on a logical fallacy.






So, sure. Let's do as you request, compare the number of Scripture about the death of Jesus and see how many say "He did for all" with those that state, "No, He ONLY died for (You don't want to say)?

"ALL": AT least 3
"ONLY ______" : Zero





Radical Calvinists (who actually repudiate Calvin on this point) invented this dogma in the late 16th Century in response to Arminianists (who embrace some forms of synergism and Pelagianism) and necessitates the opposition having those views. It doesn't work at all on people who aren't Arminianists. It's based on NOT ONE VERSE in Scripture (so much for Sola Scriptura) and on a fallacy that permits them to INSERT the word "only" into texts, the logical fallacy that is the entire basis of their apologetic is like this: "Ford makes Mustangs, ergo Ford ONLY makes Mustangs." Their entire apologetic rests on this logical fallacy. And the absence of any Scripture that states it.



@Doran



How desperate.

So, when I pray for my youngest son, that proves that I hate my older son? Jesus also prayed for Jerusalem, does that prove He ONLY died for those residing in that city? Come on. Where are you getting this silliness?



.
I have previously refuted the first three of your so-called proof-texts. I even pointed out to you that Jn 3:16 does NOT say that Jesus so loved "everyone in" the world; therefore, it's open to interpretation. It's open to be understood qualitatively. I also pointed out that YOUR interpretation of Jn 3:16 would contradict numerous passages that teach that God hates, despises, loathes or abhors evildoers, the wicked, the unrighteous, etc.

And last night I refuted your interpretation of Heb 2:9. And even there it doesn't say that Jesus tasted death for everyone in the world.

And I refuted 1 Jn2:2 a few days earlier, since the "but" in the passage is making a distinction between "our/ours" and the whole world. Since John excluded himself and his Jewish readers from the world, then the "whole world" cannot logically be understood as each and every person in the world.

And 2Cor 5:19 does not support your case either -- for this passage goes beyond Christ death to an actual aspect of salvific work in real time. And the entire focus is on GOD's WORK. "God was reconciling the world to himself, not counting men's sins against them." If the world = each and every person, then men's sins must equally be understood as ALL men's sins. If you're going to pull your ALL card with respect to the world that God was saving/reconciling to himself, then to be consistent you must play the same card for "men's sins" --in which case, the passage is teaching universal salvation. When the text says that God "was reconciling the world to HIMSELF, it's saying that God is saving the entire world -- each and every person in it -- not counting anyone's sins against them. ALL MEN'S sins have been forgiven.

There is only one way to avoid this dilemma. Since the text doesn't say "all men's, then men's sins can be understood in the limited, qualitative sense, which in turn would qualify or limit the "world". So pick your poison with this passage!
 

Josiah

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Do you think that the world is filled with sinners?


@Doran


There are no sinless people (except for the one exemption stated in Scripture - Jesus, and since He's ALSO God, perhaps He hardly counts, LOL) So yes, if Jesus died for ANYONE, He died for sinners because there ain't none but sinners. If God loves ANYONE, it has to be a sinner cuz there ain't no others to love. And of course, that's the whole point of grace and mercy - the centerpoint of Christianity.



Doran said:
But Jesus died for each and every person in the world, didn't he? So, why would he explicitly and intentionally and deliberately omit the world from his prayer and pray only for the two groups (for elect Jews and elect Gentiles)?


1. Questions aren't substantiation.

2. Again, if I pray for my wife does that prove ergo I don't love my sons? Again, in another case, He prays for Jerusalem, does that prove ergo He only died for those residents? That He only loves those who live within the city limits of Jerusalem? You are "connecting dots" that don't exist. You are making logical fallacies.

3. The context here is the church.



Doran said:
No, the "dogma" is that Jesus died for many.


Wrong.

The "L" (Limited Atonement) is that He died for SOME. The dogma itself doesn't identify who this "some" is, but the typical theory is that it is the Elect. Now, how numerous is the Elect? These anti-Calvin theologians theorize it's tiny. In Jesus' day, it would have been far less than 1% of the population. Today, it MIGHT be as high as 20%. For most of the last 2000 years, it's probably been less than 10%. BUT those guesses are all founded on "Elect" being anyone baptized as a baby, anyone declared to be a Christian by royal decree, anyone who claims any cultural or historic connection to the church. These anti-Calvin theologians tend to hold the real estimate of the number of the Elect is much smaller than that, especially since some hold that Catholics and Orthodox are not among them and together they are the vast number of church folks since 33 AD. I disagree with you that a MAX of 1% to 20% is "many." Seems like few to me. Indeed, these anti-Calvin folks often quote Jesus statement about the narrow door and "few" in this context.

If you disagree with them that the "some" are the Elect (who indeed are very few, a very small percentage) then who exactly are these "many?" Where does Scripture state who they are?



Doran said:
Also, whether you know it or not, YOU also believe in limited atonement, since you limit the extent QUALITATIVELY. You believe Christ died for all qauantitatively, while simultaneously limiting its effect qualitatively to ONLY those who repent and believe. So...to play your silly game: Jesus died for all while only an "unknown few" benefit from his death.


Wrong.

I hold that Jesus died for all. The view those radical anti-Calvin theologians in the 17th century labled as "universal atonement" the view that Jesus died for all. Exactly as the Bible states and Christianity has held. I hold that Jesus died for all, not some unknown few. And I hold that faith is essential. That faith apprehends/applies/relies on what Christ did for them on the Cross, thus applying it individually. I reject that the Cross by itself or faith by itself brings personal justification. I hold that both are needed. As the Bible states and Christianity has held. "For God so loved the world that He gave His only-begotten Son that whosoever believes in Him will not perish but have everlasting life.' Both the Cross and faith.

Thus I accept that Jesus died for all (what you crowd calls "Universal Atonement" - we don't call it anything other than what it is, the view that Jesus died for all). And that faith means it is applied to the individual. Not all are personally justified because not all have faith; faith is essential to personal justification, faith IN CHRIST that is in His atoning work (life, death and resurrection)



Doran said:
There is only one way to avoid this dilemma.


There is no dilemma.

There is just a complete absence of your new position that Jesus did NOT die for all but rather, instead ONLY for some mysterious "many."


Doran, EVEN IF you could prove that Jesus did not die for all (and obviously you can't), even if you could find that verse that states, "Jesus did not die for all" (and it doesn't exist) that does NOTHING to prove that ergo He died ONLY for some mysterious "some." If He didn't die for all, perhaps He died for none. Where does Scripture state He died ONLY for _____________? And who is this _______________? Is it no one? Is it just men but not women? Catholics but not Protestants? People then but not people now? People under the age of accountability but not over that? If "ALL" is wrong, where does Scripture get it right and tell us ONLY some and identify who that "some" or "many" or "few" or any other alternative to "all" is? If God never got this right, then are you just guessing who this "some" "many" "few" subgroup of ALL is? And if you return to the "L" crowd and guess that it's the Elect, then you are back to a tiny few (maybe less than 5% in world history).


If you read any of this.


- Josiah


.
 
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Albion

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Oh but I do believe Christ died for all... qualitatively.
So, you don't believe that Christ died for all men...but it was just swell how he died for some! ROFLOL
 

Faith

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Hey, you UAB's how come Jesus in John 17 limited his prayer to the elect and excluded the very world that you insist he died for? Any rationale, coherent explanations?
What are UABs?
 

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Jesus indeed died for MANY
And taking the chalice, he gave thanks. And he gave it to them, saying: "Drink from this, all of you. For this is my blood of the new covenant, which shall be shed for many as a remission of sins.
Matthew 26:27-28

And so I beg you, first of all, to make supplications, prayers, petitions, and thanksgivings for all men, for kings, and for all who are in high places, so that we may lead a quiet and tranquil life in all piety and chastity. For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour, who wants all men to be saved and to arrive at an acknowledgment of the truth. For there is one God, and one mediator of God and of men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a redemption for all, as a testimony in its proper time.
1 Timothy 2:1-6

My little sons, this I write to you, so that you may not sin. But if anyone has sinned, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ, the Just One. And he is the propitiation for our sins. And not only for our sins, but also for those of the whole world. And we can be sure that we have known him by this: if we observe his commandments. Whoever claims that he knows him, and yet does not keep his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. But whoever keeps his word, truly in him the charity of God is perfected. And by this we know that we are in him. Whoever declares himself to remain in him, ought to walk just as he himself walked.
1 John 2:1-6

Shed for many, God our saviour who wants all men to be saved, he [Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins and not only for our sins but also for those of the whole world.

It's fundamentally a mystery, revealed by God yet not explained by God in the way that Limited Atonement explains it. Moses said that the secret things belong to YHWH and the things that YHWH reveals belong to his people. The three passages above are the things revealed. Limited Atonement is an attempt to see into the secret things. It cannot succeed because it is not the time for it. Let God be true even if every cunning and wily explanation of humankind if discovered to be a lie.
 
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