Double Predestination

ImaginaryDay2

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He justly judges humanity as law breakers. That is God's role. He is the Sovereign Judge in His Creation.

Would you say that he has "predestined" them to that fate, the same as he had for the Elect?
 

MennoSota

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Would you say that he has "predestined" them to that fate, the same as he had for the Elect?
No. I would say (and have said) that man is born in sin by virtue of Adam. The law condemns sin as lawlessness against God. God justly condemns sinners to hell.
God predetermined to whom he would extend unmerited favor (grace). Those to whom he has shown grace are pardoned because Christ Jesus has paid the debt for their sin. This payment is an act of grace. At no time was God ever obligated to be gracious. In fact, God has never shown grace to fallen angels.
Are fallen angels predestined to eternal damnation or are they justly condemned?
 

Josiah

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MennoSota said:
Did Christ die and atone for all humanity's sin?
If yes, then all humanity is justified.



.


So Christ didn't die for all the sins of the world? The "all" doesn't mean all? What does it mean?


I believe 1 John 2:2. I believe God inspired the correct words (and not opposite of what He should have inspired). I don't "hate" it, I don't deny it by deleting the words in it and then substituting the opposite words, I think it's right, I think God is right. If it conflicts with your speculation, well, that's your problem.


1 John 2:2 is clear. Yes, you must delete what it says and replace the words you delete with the opposite to make your position credible. Same is true for SO many Scriptures. Scripture is clear: Jesus died for all sins. And Scripture is clear: that does not mean all are justified since not all have faith. Your position, that if Jesus died for all sins then all are saved, is unbiblical (and illogical). You are just parroting an unbiblical (and illogical) but oft-made talking point of some in your denomination (and yes, it reveals how Limited Atonement is inseparable from DOUBLE Predestination, however both wrong).


OBVIOUSLY, just because Christ died for all of course does not mean all are justified. You TRIED to make some false paradigm you yourself know is false. I realize universalism came out of Calvinism, but you basing your question on Universalism is absurd since you and all Protestants, Catholics and Orthodox reject it. Those justified are so because Sola Gratia - Solus Christus - Sola Fide applies, as ONE united and inseparable truth (the Chief Article of Protestantism). Eliminate any aspect of that (as Universalism does and as you tried to in your silly question) and justification doesn't apply. John 3:16 does not say, "For God so loved the world that He gave His only Son so all are saved regardless of whether they have faith." Thus, obviously, we can hold that Jesus died for all (and thus 1 John 2:2 is NOT lying and need not be twisted inside out and upside down as Calvinists must do) but that does not mean that all are justified. You had to deny the Chief Article and become a Universalist to frame the question to me as you did, to hold that if 1 John 2:2 is true then ERGO all are justified.


NO Lutheran here is teaching Universalism (that came out of Calvinism), and NO Lutheran here is denying predestination of the justified. Lutherans here are just rejecting what atpollard posted nearly all Calvinists have now also rejected: DOUBLE predestination, the "speculation" of one man in the 16th Century that "goes beyond Scripture" in order to "remove the mystery Scripture presents." Just as all the Reformed in this thread have indicated, but you. Lutherans reject that.... just as it seems nearly all Calvinists now do; atpollard and others indicating the Reformed are now essentially Lutheran on this ('its now just a matter of semantics').


It is an illogical and silly ploy of some hyper-Calvinists to insist that if 1 John 2:2 is believed then Universalism must be believed. The ploy mandates their abandoning Protestantism and it's chief article. Just as it is a constant, illogical, silly ploy of hyper-Calvinists to insist that if they can show Arminianism is false, ERGO hyper-Calvinism is true. What an absurd, illogical position! Truth is, BOTH are in part wrong.... both are what all the Calvinists here but you have essentially admitted, both are "logical constuctions" that are "speculations" that "go beyond Scripture" in order to "remove the mystery Scripture presents." And as the other Reformed here have admitted (just not you), most Reformed have realized this and are now essentially Lutheran on this point ("its now mostly a matter of semantics"). And yes, there has been a side point where the Reformed here (except you) are distancing themselves from Limited Atonement (another part of TULIP); they aren't buying the illogical ploy that if 1 John 2:2 is actually true then all are saved because faith is entirely irrelevant and has nothing to do with anything. Your old, old Calvinist ploy here is illogical and wrong.



Back to the issue, which is DOUBLE predestination (what you stated, "God chooses some for pardon and some for punishment"). See posts 121 and 124



- Josiah



.
 
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ImaginaryDay2

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No. I would say (and have said) that man is born in sin by virtue of Adam. The law condemns sin as lawlessness against God. God justly condemns sinners to hell.

And I would have no argument here. All human-kind faces the same judgment from birth.

God predetermined to whom he would extend unmerited favor (grace). Those to whom he has shown grace are pardoned because Christ Jesus has paid the debt for their sin. This payment is an act of grace. At no time was God ever obligated to be gracious.

With the exception of point one, I agree. I think that's been clear from other posts of mine. But I've been clear that whomever God saves, it is through saving faith -a gift of God's grace - unmerited by anything on our part. But on the last point is where I'm curious. If "at no time was God ever obligated to be gracious", hasn't he (by virtue of not being obligated) taken part in ordaining the non-elect to condemnation - even passively?

In fact, God has never shown grace to fallen angels.
Are fallen angels predestined to eternal damnation or are they justly condemned?
By an act of God they were thrown out for their rebellion - God is the active agent. Might it be the same for the reprobate/non-elect? If so, the argument for double predestination has to be upheld, as uncomfortable as it is.

Example:

"And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity."
 
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hedrick

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Here they are:

The five points of Arminianism (from Jacobus Arminius 1559-1609) are in contrast to the five points of Calvinism. The Arminian five points are

  • Human Free Will--This states that though man is fallen, he is not incapacitated by the sinful nature and can freely choose God. His will is not restricted and enslaved by his sinful nature.
  • Conditional Election--God chose people for salvation based on His foreknowledge where God looks into the future to see who would respond to the gospel message.
  • Universal Atonement--The position that Jesus bore the sin of everyone who ever lived.
  • Resistable Grace--The teaching that the grace of God can be resisted and finally beaten so as to reject salvation in Christ.
  • Fall from Grace--The Teaching that a person can fall from grace and lose his salvation.

I think a more typical Arminian position (e.g. http://evangelicalarminians.org/the...nian-theologythe-biblical-doctrines-of-grace/) is that the fall does incapacitate man, and God's gracious action is needed to bring us to the point where we have the possibility of responding to the Gospel.

The idea that election depends upon foreknowledge has been suggested by some. But the more general Arminian position is that election applies only to those who have faith in Christ.
 

Imalive

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And I would have no argument here. All human-kind faces the same judgment from birth.



With the exception of point one, I agree. I think that's been clear from other posts of mine. But I've been clear that whomever God saves, it is through saving faith -a gift of God's grace - unmerited by anything on our part. But on the last point is where I'm curious. If "at no time was God ever obligated to be gracious", hasn't he (by virtue of not being obligated) taken part in ordaining the non-elect to condemnation - even passively?


By an act of God they were thrown out for their rebellion - God is the active agent. Might it be the same for the reprobate/non-elect? If so, the argument for of double predestination has to be upheld, as uncomfortable as it is.

Example:

"And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity."

Yes.
Thing is: we think about aunt so and such who is a sweet person and just doesnt believe He exists and can be like: oh golly thats evil if God predestined her to hell.
The fact that she isnt a complete jerk gives me faith for her. But apply the text to Hitler or the antichrist, I see no problem w it.
 

ImaginaryDay2

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Yes.
Thing is: we think about aunt so and such who is a sweet person and just doesnt believe He exists and can be like: oh golly thats evil if God predestined her to hell.
The fact that she isnt a complete jerk gives me faith for her. But apply the text to Hitler or the antichrist, I see no problem w it.

Nooo! Not Grandma!
Some would say with confidence that they know a person's ultimate fate. Best leave that to a gracious God. I wouldn't assume to know a man's heart at death.
Hitler, though, we could infer a few things, I think.
 

psalms 91

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So Christ didn't die for all the sins of the world? The "all" doesn't mean all? What does it mean?
Not what you are trying to say. All means He died for all but not all will come to Him, simple as that and I dont want to get into a circular argument for the next six pages so lets leave it at that
 

MennoSota

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And I would have no argument here. All human-kind faces the same judgment from birth.



With the exception of point one, I agree. I think that's been clear from other posts of mine. But I've been clear that whomever God saves, it is through saving faith -a gift of God's grace - unmerited by anything on our part. But on the last point is where I'm curious. If "at no time was God ever obligated to be gracious", hasn't he (by virtue of not being obligated) taken part in ordaining the non-elect to condemnation - even passively?


By an act of God they were thrown out for their rebellion - God is the active agent. Might it be the same for the reprobate/non-elect? If so, the argument for double predestination has to be upheld, as uncomfortable as it is.

Example:

"And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity."
God has ordained his just judgment upon all humanity for their rebellion. In so doing, he also provided a Redeemer to those whom he elected to be gracious. It is not predestination, it is a just outcome. The Bible is clear on this, what therefore is unclear in your mind?
 

MennoSota

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Not what you are trying to say. All means He died for all but not all will come to Him, simple as that and I dont want to get into a circular argument for the next six pages so lets leave it at that

So his atoning death was not for all, but only for some. For the ones God draws (drags) to Himself, just as Jesus says in John 6. Correct?
 

Imalive

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Only this text could mean double predestination I think, although I wonder if it does:

But these, as natural brute beasts, made to be taken and destroyed, speak evil of the things that they understand not; and shall utterly perish in their own corruption;

Dont think that means double predestination.

Come, inherit the kingdom,” He added, “prepared for you before the foundation of the world;” but concerning the fire, no longer so, but, “prepared for the devil.” I, saith He, prepared the kingdom for you, but the fire no more for you, but “for the devil and his angels
Read more at http://www.patheos.com/blogs/davear...elism-for-reprobates.html#y0yVHjKPjHfdt75A.99

So if double predestination is not true, heaven was prepared for everyone.
 
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psalms 91

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So his atoning death was not for all, but only for some. For the ones God draws (drags) to Himself, just as Jesus says in John 6. Correct?
Wrong, I will leave you to it as I said I dont want dragged down this rabbit hole yet once again.
 

MennoSota

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Wrong, I will leave you to it as I said I dont want dragged down this rabbit hole yet once again.
You refuse to think and therefore see the circular argument you have created for yourself.
Fine, but know that you are choosing to be ignorant and avoid your significant problems.
 

Imalive

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You refuse to think and therefore see the circular argument you have created for yourself.
Fine, but know that you are choosing to be ignorant and avoid your significant problems.

He simply reads the Bible. Jesus died for the whole world. John 3:16
He died for the false teachers who were first cleansed by His blood and then like a dog returned to their vomit.
 

MennoSota

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He simply reads the Bible. Jesus died for the whole world. John 3:16
He died for the false teachers who were first cleansed by His blood and then like a dog returned to their vomit.
...and therefore, by his reading (and yours) all humanity is saved and spared hell. All humanity will be in heaven.
But, you don't believe that. You add your own non-biblical twist. All people go to heaven depending on if they accept or reject Jesus atonement.
Since billions have no knowledge of Jesus and his atonement this leaves them all in limbo. They neither accepted nor rejected Jesus atonement. Do all the people in that category go to heaven or hell?
Your argument becomes salvation by works, but you cannot see it.
 

Imalive

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...and therefore, by his reading (and yours) all humanity is saved and spared hell. All humanity will be in heaven.
But, you don't believe that. You add your own non-biblical twist. All people go to heaven depending on if they accept or reject Jesus atonement.
Since billions have no knowledge of Jesus and his atonement this leaves them all in limbo. They neither accepted nor rejected Jesus atonement. Do all the people in that category go to heaven or hell?
Your argument becomes salvation by works, but you cannot see it.

Thats Biblical and even in Romans 9.
If they have never heard of Him they'll get a chance maybe. Dont know.
https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.gotquestions.org/amp/never-heard.html

And in your version God chose ppl to not hear the gospel in His sovereignty. He said we should preach the gospel to everyone and make disciples of all nations but then sovereignly they dont hear it. It couldnt be the churches fault. Lets place the ball w God.
 
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hedrick

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Come, inherit the kingdom,” He added, “prepared for you before the foundation of the world;” but concerning the fire, no longer so, but, “prepared for the devil.” I, saith He, prepared the kingdom for you, but the fire no more for you, but “for the devil and his angels
Read more at http://www.patheos.com/blogs/davear...elism-for-reprobates.html#y0yVHjKPjHfdt75A.99

So if double predestination is not true, heaven was prepared for everyone.
This passage doesn't say anything about how people became Jesus' followers, just that the Kingdom was prepared for his followers.
 

MennoSota

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Thats Biblical and even in Romans 9.
If they have never heard of Him they'll get a chance maybe. Dont know.
https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.gotquestions.org/amp/never-heard.html

And in your version God chose ppl to not hear the gospel in His sovereignty. He said we should preach the gospel to everyone and make disciples of all nations but then sovereignly they dont hear it. It couldnt be the churches fault. Lets place the ball w God.

We are to go to the uttermost parts of the world. We have not yet fulfilled that task.
You still put the burden of salvation on humans as though God cannot save humans without us.
God chooses to rightly and justly judge each human according to their rebellious, law breaking self. We are condemned...but as Paul says..."who will deliver me from this body of sin"..."thanks be to Jesus..." "There is now, therefore, no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus."
There is no "your version". There is only God's version provided to us in His word.
Either God is entirely Sovereign, without any need of assistance, or God is not fully Sovereign and needs help. Which one is it?
 

atpollard

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I think a more typical Arminian position (e.g. http://evangelicalarminians.org/the...nian-theologythe-biblical-doctrines-of-grace/) is that the fall does incapacitate man, and God's gracious action is needed to bring us to the point where we have the possibility of responding to the Gospel.

The idea that election depends upon foreknowledge has been suggested by some. But the more general Arminian position is that election applies only to those who have faith in Christ.
I agree. I was attempting to present the original positions of Arminius himself that prompted the 5 points of Calvinism. Modern Arminianism owes a great debt to people like John Wesley and the evolution of later Arminians.
 

ImaginaryDay2

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God has ordained his just judgment upon all humanity for their rebellion. In so doing, he also provided a Redeemer to those whom he elected to be gracious. It is not predestination, it is a just outcome. The Bible is clear on this, what therefore is unclear in your mind?

Nothing is unclear except for the inability of some to draw the obvious (rational) conclusion of double predestination. In ordaining judgment for rebellion, God has acted, and is not a passive agent.
 
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