Pedrito
Well-known member
- Joined
- Aug 21, 2015
- Messages
- 1,032
- Gender
- Male
- Religious Affiliation
- Christian
- Political Affiliation
- Conservative
- Marital Status
- Married
- Acceptance of the Trinity & Nicene Creed
- Yes
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I thank MennoSota for his contribution of [KJV text used here]:
- 2 Peter 1:1: Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:;
- Philippians 1:29: For unto you it is given in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for his sake;
- Acts 3:16: And his name through faith in his name hath made this man strong, whom ye see and know: yea, the faith which is by him hath given him this perfect soundness in the presence of you all.
They are significant truths, and we can learn from them.
But are they proof texts?
In both English and Greek, the word “faith” has a broad range of meanings. That range of meanings can be, and is, used to confuse the issue with respect to a particular belief. Whether the confusing use is accidental (through lack of accurate understanding) or deliberate, the effect is the same.
(As a parallel example, some Christians deliberately confuse two main meanings of the verb “judge” – those meanings being: (a) to discern; and (b) to look down on, or criticise – so that they (the Christians) can avoid the responsibility laid on them in 1 John 5:16-17.)
So let’s have a closer look.
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I submit the following:
In 2 Peter 1:1, the Greek word translated “obtained” actually has the meaning of obtaining by lot. But does that mean that the faith mentioned was implanted without the recipient’s volition? Jesus’ statement in John 6:37 indicates that it is the call that is by lot, and that those who respond to that call by faith are accepted without reservation.
Philippians 1:29 is discussing privilege, not an external injection of faith.
Acts 3:16 refers back to Acts 3:6-8. The healing of the crippled man was an external miracle performed by Peter, and was not the result of an implantation of faith in the cripple. The occurrences of “him” in Acts 3:16 refers back to the previous verse (Acts 3:15).
So it would seem that none of the three Scripture references provided, can actually be seen as a proof text.
But that doesn’t necessarily mean that no proof texts exist. We need to wait and see what else can be offered in that regard.
==============================================================================================
I thank MennoSota for his contribution of [KJV text used here]:
- 2 Peter 1:1: Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:;
- Philippians 1:29: For unto you it is given in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for his sake;
- Acts 3:16: And his name through faith in his name hath made this man strong, whom ye see and know: yea, the faith which is by him hath given him this perfect soundness in the presence of you all.
They are significant truths, and we can learn from them.
But are they proof texts?
In both English and Greek, the word “faith” has a broad range of meanings. That range of meanings can be, and is, used to confuse the issue with respect to a particular belief. Whether the confusing use is accidental (through lack of accurate understanding) or deliberate, the effect is the same.
(As a parallel example, some Christians deliberately confuse two main meanings of the verb “judge” – those meanings being: (a) to discern; and (b) to look down on, or criticise – so that they (the Christians) can avoid the responsibility laid on them in 1 John 5:16-17.)
So let’s have a closer look.
==============================================================================================
I submit the following:
In 2 Peter 1:1, the Greek word translated “obtained” actually has the meaning of obtaining by lot. But does that mean that the faith mentioned was implanted without the recipient’s volition? Jesus’ statement in John 6:37 indicates that it is the call that is by lot, and that those who respond to that call by faith are accepted without reservation.
Philippians 1:29 is discussing privilege, not an external injection of faith.
Acts 3:16 refers back to Acts 3:6-8. The healing of the crippled man was an external miracle performed by Peter, and was not the result of an implantation of faith in the cripple. The occurrences of “him” in Acts 3:16 refers back to the previous verse (Acts 3:15).
So it would seem that none of the three Scripture references provided, can actually be seen as a proof text.
But that doesn’t necessarily mean that no proof texts exist. We need to wait and see what else can be offered in that regard.
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