Second, where do you find an unsaved person being baptized.
You have already shown that your entire apologetic is wrong: NOT every case where a person is baptized it is indicated the person FIRST chose Jesus and made public testimony of such.... See First Corinthians 1:16 for just one example. Your premise is flatly wrong, it's just not true.
And you have NOT shown why it would matter even if it was true (which you've indicated it's not). You don't accept your rubric that we can only do what we see exampled in the NT and no other - so since you reject that rubric, why are we to be bound to it?
Yes, you keep saying that what matters is what the BIBLE STATES and not some denominational spin.... but you have yet to produce ONE SCRIPTURE that states we are forbidden to baptize people unless they FIRST have chosen Jesus and made public testimony of such; your entirely point is without ANY Scripture.... all you are doing is perfectly and verbatim echoing the new Anabaptist spin on this invented completely out of the blue by a man in the 16th Century.
You have fully ignored my response to each of your Bible passages in which I present my case.
No. Quite the opposite. I didn't need to go further than the first case, 1 Corinthians 1:16 and noted you could NOT show that any of the members of the household had FIRST decided for Jesus and made a public testimony of such. Your premise ("EVERY PERSON baptized in the Bible FIRST decided for Jesus and publicly testified to it") you showed is false, it's just not true. And you couldn't show where the verse states, "And because every person in the household FIRST chose Jesus and testified to such BEFORE they were allowed to be baptized, this is henceforth required for all are to be baptized."
And of course, you could not show where it states, "And all this is a waste of time, accomplishing nothing whatsoever."
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