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We have no manuscript that date back to that time. All the Greek manuscripts of the LXX which contain at least some books of the Apocrypha date to the 4th century A.D. or latter. Moreover there is no evidence that any book of the Apocrypha was part of the original Septuagint. And you ought to...

First, that does not address my comment. Cite any primary source before the time of Christ which states they accepted these books. Second, I am not trying to convince you of anything. I am addressing the many sweeping generalizations, errors, and down right false claims. Third, Natan said...

Sorry. I was pointing out it was Nathan who said "before the time of Christ" and that I was just following his claim. I fixed the above post.

Trying to change the subject by deflect attention to something else.

I see you cannot cite a source so you want to deflect attention to something else but it won't work. You have no primary source. No, it was Nathan who said "before the time of Christ." In post 82 Nathan stated: I was simply following his claim.

All the Greek manuscripts of the LXX which contain at least some books of the Apocrypha date to the 4th century A.D. or latter. Cite any primary source before the time of Christ which states they accepted these books.

The Babylonian Talmud dates to 6th centuries A.D. We have no evidence any book of the Apocrypha was part of the original Septuagint. Irrelevant. We know at least some of them existed before the 1st century. That in no way prove they believe they were Scripture. New Testament authors may...

Then cite any primary source before the time of Christ which states they accepted these books.

Cite any primary source before the time of Christ which states they accepted these books.

You are speculating as to why. You simply have no evidence. In other words you cannot provide a primary source where it states clearly that Melito was Jewish. Not my job. It is your job to support your claim.

We are talking about Old Testament quotes in the New. Where is the evidence there? No New Testament manuscripts nor any Church fathers support your claim. There is NO EVIDENCE AT ALL, ZERO. First, you have got to be kidding! That's your evidence! Let me know when you can provide objective...

First, provide a primary source where it states clearly that Melito was Jewish. Second, still no objective evidence he "favored the Hebrew over the Septuagint." Third, here we go again. Another example of pure speculation coupled with the association fallacy.

The answer must be APOCRYPHA. That is always the answer to your bait and switch, pretending to want to talk about one thing when in reality it is something else threads.

Which proves nothing. Your modus operandi is always the same. First, you resort to pure speculation and fantasy. Then comes step two, the association fallacy. It never fails. Eusebius does not agree. Ecclesiastical History, Book 4, Chapter 26, Section 14 "Accordingly when I went East and...

Untrue! Melito never claims he got his list from Jews. He states: "Accordingly when I went East and came to the place where these things were preached and done, I learned accurately the book of the Old Testament, and send them to you as written below." (EH 4.26.14) He was Bishop of...

Yes I have reads the letters. Everyone knows Jerome preferred the Hebrew canon. Augustine accepted the Apocrypha. That is not news and Jerome is only one person. You stated: You said "the ones who favored the Hebrew over the Septuagint." Prove the following individuals favored the Hebrew...

I never said they were extraordinary claims. I was merely asking for proof. I cannot see why it is wrong to ask for evidence for a claim. If one does not have the proof, then it is best not to make a claim which cannot be supported with facts, evidence, proof. Without a doubt

You have made the claim now where is the objective evidence that was the reason for all of them?

So you don't have any. Thanks

Proof?