As MoreCoffee pointed out, the real question is DO all babies believe (or at least, all of the babies you are baptizing)?
God CAN do almost anything.
[MENTION=334]atpollard[/MENTION]
Seems to me, that's changing the subject AGAIN. You already agreed that babies CAN be given faith, so the point that we can't baptize babies because they can't believe has been surrendered.
But let me just say this: I have faith. God has given me that free gift, performing that miracle. And I have had faith for longer than I can remember. I was baptized. Can I PROVE with some verse of the Bible that the SOLE reason I have faith is because I was baptized? No. Can I PROVE with a quote of a verse of Scripture that the baptism I received even had a role in that? No. Can you do the opposite? No. Now..... how does that prove that we are forbidden to administer baptism to one until they have celebrated their "X" birthday? How does that prove that we are forbidden to administer baptism until they have uttered "The Sinner's Prayer" or adequately responded to an Altar Call or got enough correct answers on some quiz or gained enough hours of Bible school? What does the reality that I HAVE faith and WAS Baptized prove or disprove about that?
The "real question" (as you put it) is this: The Bible commands us to go and baptize and teach (the Great Commission), just as it commands us to love (the Great Commandment). Now, where is the prohibition for those under the magical age of "X?" The arguments seem to be two things: 1) If the Bible doesn't specially INCLUDE a group
by name, they are thus forbidden and we are prohibited from baptizing or teaching or loving them. I find that apologetic and rubric absurd, I think the "burden of proof" is on those who are adding a prohibition such as "this is the verse that means we are prohibited from loving this group of people...." 2) There are many things associated with baptizing and teaching and loving, LOTS of things associated with faith and life... and unless ALL these things have been completed, none of them can be effectual or used by God. You have often pointed out associations and linked them in an endless sequence of "THEN" (I have no idea where your chain ends, if it does).
And while I appreciate your uber-Calvinist "OSAS" theology (and we should not discuss that here), very few share that. I realize that some who were baptized SEEM at least to not now have the divine gift of faith, but outside the confines of OSAS, that's entirely irrelevant to whether God can or cannot give faith via some Means of Grace (another subject again) and CERTAINLY irrelevant to any substantiation that we are prohibited from baptizing or teaching any under the magical age of "X" or until they have uttered "The Sinner's Prayer" or attained enough credits in Christian Education or came forward for an Altar Call. I can see how you would deny any value in baptism because it SEEMS to you SOME who were baptized don't believe.... but then by the same reasoning, you'd need to forbid Christian Education and preaching as well since it's likely SOME may SEEM to you no longer have faith even though they did hear a Gospel sermon or did go to a Billy Graham Crusade. I think your OSAS application to this issue is..... flawed at least.
Soli Deo Gloria
- Josiah