Obviously, this verse says NOTHING about Mary having other children. NOTHING.
It doesn't even remotely indicate that Mary had sex - before or after the birth of Jesus (resulting in a child or otherwise). The word "until" in the original koine Greek does not even remotely IMPLY such - much less state such (the possible IMPLICATION of the modern ENGLISH word used in the TRANSLATION might - might - IMPLY that, but the original Greek does not, not at all, not a bit).
I just find it ... humorous..... that some will rebuke Catholics and Orthodox (and some Protestants) for saying that Mary did not have sex after Jesus was born because the Bible does not specifically state that.... then equally and dogmatically insist that Mary not only had sex but had other kids then PROVE (persistently!) that that Bible does not state that. Pot calling kettle black. Log/speck point.
IF the Bible doesn't say - then the Bible does not say. One MIGHT look to ancient tradition (and find ALL positions in such)...... one MIGHT insert personal opinions (and hang ups) imposed onto the text..... but the Bible remains silent on the issue. Just like 99% of denominations. Perhaps it doesn't matter so much. Perhaps it's none of our business. But silence is silence, not dogmatic proclamation - for or against.
- Josiah
Looking at other translations:
Matthew 1:25
(ESV) but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus.
(GNB) But he had no sexual relations with her before she gave birth to her son. And Joseph named him Jesus.
(KJV) And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
(MSG) But he did not consummate the marriage until she had the baby. He named the baby Jesus.
(NIrV) But he did not make love to her until after she gave birth to a son. And Joseph gave him the name Jesus.
(NIV) But he did not consummate their marriage until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.
(NIV84) But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.
(NKJV) and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name JESUS.
(NLT) But he did not have sexual relations with her until her son was born. And Joseph named Him Jesus.
(TNIV) But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.
One might argue that the text doesn't explicitly say Mary and Joseph consummated their marriage after Jesus was born, neither does it say they did not. Terms like "he did not (act) until (event)" suggest that after (event) occurred, (act) took place - although it does arguably leave the possibility that (act) took place at some later date or never took place at all I would have expected a more explicit statement of this if it were the case.
Personally I'd take the view that for a newly married couple to not consummate their marriage would be very unusual, and therefore in the absence of anything that clearly states one way or the other the most reasonable assumption is that they did. (Of course the most reasonable assumption is still an assumption).
I think the key issue is whether or not it really matters. Nobody is disputing that Mary was the mother of Jesus and I'm really struggling to see why it matters whether or not she remained a virgin after Jesus was born. To be honest I would be inclined to say that if someone wants to make such a claim they need to indicate that it is true based on a clear statement, rather than based on a lack of anything that explicitly stated that Joseph and Mary consummated their marriage after Jesus' birth.
