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I'll settle for proof texts.
@Doran
Here are four...
Hebrews 2:9 so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
2 Corinthians 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for all
2 Corinthians 5:15 And he died for all
1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself as a ransom for all.
and many more just like these.
I too will settle for clear proof texts, perhaps 4 that are equally clear as the above, at least 4 that state, "No, Jesus did not die for all but only for some unknown few." Can you present at least 4 such passages that state that?
Mine is that you universalists
No one in this discussion is a universalist. Universalism was a split off from radical, extreme Calvinism some 300 years ago. Like those Calvinists, they hold that if Jesus died for you, you are saved (faith being irrelevant) BUT they realized what nearly every Calvinists has (including all Calvinists personally known to me), God says that Jesus died for all (and NEVER only for some few) THUS they hold to universal personal justification (whether there is faith or not); their mantra: "If Jesus died for all then all are personally justified."
Dave's foundational apologetic is close to universalism; he comes close to this. He too has argued that if Jesus died for all (as the Bible states) then all would have personal justification. This is an apologetic OFTEN used by those defending their invention that Jesus did NOT die for all but ONLY a few. It's a point 1689Dave has made dozens and dozens of times. But he technically is not a universalist because he does not agree with God on whether Jesus died for all, he (like you) holds that He only died for some unknown few.
need to reconcile the "many" passages with the "all" passages. Are you going to tell us that Many = All?
I believe that all means all. Read what the Bible says. I believe that "ONLY some" would mean that, but no such Scripture exists. And not one person interpreted Scripture that way until a handful of radical anti-Calvin guys invented that idea. The Church Fathers, an Ecumenical Church Council (even John Calvin) all held that "all" means all.
"Many" does not mean "not all." And certainly, "many" does not mean "some unknown FEW" (the view of Limited Atonement). For you to conclude that "many" means that, you'd need some verse that states "but NOT Joe Biden" or whoever you think is exempted from the "all" (the 'all' of course would still apply to all the rest). That word "NOT" is your position, it is the essential word you are mandated to present. EXAMPLE: "For all have sinned and all short...." BUT there is a verse that states, "Jesus was without sin." SO, the Bible verbatim, flat-out, in black and white makes an exception - JESUS - and so we except that one exception to the "all." But it does not mean that all blonde haired persons are exempt, it means Jesus is. Where is your verse that state, "Jesus did NOT die for ___________." If you find it, that will mean that _________ is excluded from the "all."
Doran said:Predestination
This thread is not about predestination. Most here accept that view, but if you want to discuss that, create a thread on that (or better yet, continue one of the several threads already existing on this forum).
It's not about predestination or that some are Elect. It's not about sheep (those with faith) and goats (those without faith). It's not about who has or does not have personal justification. The topic is this: DID JESUS DIE FOR ALL PEOPLE (as the Bible repeatedly, verbatim, literally, flat-out, in black and white states, as the church fathers taught, as an Ecumenical Church Council declared as dogma, as Luther and Calvin both taught) OR is this wrong, and in fact JESUS DID NOT DIE FOR ALL BUT ONLY, EXCLUSIVELY, SOLELY FOR SOME UNKNOWN FEW." (a view never existing before a handful of men who declared Calvin wrong and invented this dogma).
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