I'd say "yes." There are many directives and assessments found in the Bible that refer to Jews or women or unrepentant sinners or siblings, etc....and there clearly are people who are not part of one or more of those groups. But still, the application, the principle, would itself be universal. For anyone, anywhere, who is so identified, the advice that is given applies, don't you think?can a biblical principal be applied universally?
Are there Bible principals based on the parables of Jesus such as “a good tree cannot bear bad fruit”?
I guess we'd have to see specific examples before answering that one. My guess, offhand, is that sometimes it applies one way but sometimes it's the opposite.is this also true if scripture uses a personal name then it only applies th that person but if says to the disciple then does it apply to all disciples?
Ok only it says to the disciple standing there, so I would think it means spiritual motherhood for all disciples?What's the Biblical principle that you see in that verse? Generally, the message there is seen as being limited to the connection between Mary and John (about which there are several different theories). I wouldn't think it would be a good example of a "Biblical principle" that is to be applied universally.
The two most common "takes" on the matter are these: 1) this statement of Jesus indicates to us that John was Jesus' brother or half-brother, so that he's simply saying "John, you have to step up now. Look after our mother when I'm not here."Ok only it says to the disciple standing there, so I would think it means spiritual motherhood for all disciples?
Thanks
Not the mother of all men as Eve was but the mother of those living in Christ in the new covenant new creationThe two most common "takes" on the matter are these: 1) this statement of Jesus indicates to us that John was Jesus' brother or half-brother, so that he's simply saying "John, you have to step up now. Look after our mother when I'm not here."
The other one holds that 2) Jesus is naming John, a close associate but not a relative, to take on that responsibility.
In neither case would the wording seem to be saying that Mary was at that point being made the Mother of all humanity, but there are people who hold to that view.
That would be the view most often associated with the Catholic Church, yes.Not the mother of all men as Eve was but the mother of those living in Christ in the new covenant new creation
Could be.Why is Rachel considered the mother of all Israelites? When the 12 sons of Jacob all brothers had 4 mothers unless she was spiritual mother to Israel? Jesus does not say take care of Mary but behold “Thy” mother!
what is significant about the word “behold” is Jesus saying this is a marvelous thing a great surprise or blessing?
I’m learning so much thanks for you’re charitable helps,
The first of those is simply the accumulated customs, etc. of a society, but speaking theologically, there is also Holy Tradition. It's usually capitalized and not pluralized (traditions).What’s the difference between the tradition of men and divine tradition?
As you've indicated with those examples, revelation can "come" in a variety of ways. Usually, the particulars are indicated in the Bible passage, but not always.People who receive revelation, how did the revelation come, a voice or what?
Lk 1:41-45 how did Elizabeth know these things
Matt 16:17 Peter received revelation
Lk 3:2 the word of God came unto John in the wilderness
Also the spirit fell on some, filled others, and overshadowed Mart what do these mean?
Angel encounters at the tomb at the ascension Gabriel in Lk 1 and
How was Philip guided by an angel acts 8
Thanks
None of that which you've referred to implies that any essential doctrine is to be based upon church custom if it's without Biblical support.How can the “Bible alone” or the only authority when scripture itself says the apostles are the light of the world Matt 5:14 we must hear the church Matt 18:17 Matt 28:19 the church is the pillar of truth 1 Tim 3:15 and we must believe the apostles acts 1:8 witnesses of Christ and acts 2:42 lk 10:16 etc.
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What about them?I see ok
what about the apostles who wrote no scripture?
Christ gave them a certain degree of authority. But the Christian community cast additional authority upon them, not surprisingly, because they had known the Savior personally.do the apostles have authority from Christ to teach or only to write?
2 John 1:12
Having many things to write unto you, I would not write with paper and ink: but I trust to come unto you, andspeak face to face, that our joy may be full.
Certainly. Not much before the first books of the NT were written, but still before, And some of the NT wasn't written until close to the end of the first century AD.Did the church exist before the New Testament?
From everything we know from history, yes. And certainly also from what the NT relays to us on its own pages, after that part was written. For example, we know that the Apostles were empowered to jointly meet and choose a successor to Judas after his suicide. Also, we read that Jesus instructed the Apostles to preach to all nations, to baptize converts, and more than that.Did the church teach and exercise the author Christ before the New Testament and even wrote the New Testament?
Or their chosen successors, yes.Does not Christ’s teaching authority in His church by the apostles remain till Christ returns? Matt 28:19-20 Jn 20:21 acts 1:8
Peter was one of the Apostles, as we all know, so I don't follow what you are getting at. I didn't deny that the Apostles were authorized by Christ himself and that the early church looked to them as authoritative.Acts 2:14 But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words:
CheckMathias replaced or succeed judas yes
Well, if a person is without the truth, I don't see any reason to doubt that he is in some sort of intellectual deprivation...or bondage, if we want to put it that way.is the opposite of a scripture also true example: you shall know the truth and the truth shall make you free
so is it true that false doctrine causes bondage?
In some cases, yes, but not in all cases. That's my opinion without analyzing every possible example in the Bible before offering a reply to your post.Types and figures or prefigures
Are they valid