Was the Messiah prophesied to heal the blind according to the OT?

Andrew

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"And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Isaiah. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written, The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, To preach the acceptable year of the Lord. And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him"
Luke 4:17-20

"The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound;
To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God"
Isaiah 61:1-2

Where is this prophecy of "sight to the blind" according to Jesus "written"?
 
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Lamb

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"And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Isaiah. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written, The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, To preach the acceptable year of the Lord. And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him"
Luke 4:17-20

"The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound;
To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God"
Isaiah 61:1-2

Where is this prophecy of "sight to the blind" according to Jesus "written"?

"He said, 'Go and tell this people:


"Be ever hearing, but never understanding;
be ever seeing, but never perceiving.’
Make the heart of this people calloused;
make their ears dull
and close their eyes.
Otherwise they might see with their eyes,
hear with their ears,
understand with their hearts,
and turn and be healed"'" (Isaiah 6:9–10

Healing was mentioned in Isaiah. It encompasses all healing.
 

Andrew

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"He said, 'Go and tell this people:


"Be ever hearing, but never understanding;
be ever seeing, but never perceiving.’
Make the heart of this people calloused;
make their ears dull
and close their eyes.
Otherwise they might see with their eyes,
hear with their ears,
understand with their hearts,
and turn and be healed"'" (Isaiah 6:9–10

Healing was mentioned in Isaiah. It encompasses all healing.
Isaiah in the LXX agrees with Jesus, was the LXX altered later to agree with Jesus? If not then that's quite the coincidence

Prisoners being released could be synonymous with recovery of sight except Jesus clearly states "it is written"
 

Lamb

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Since Isaiah answers your question, you see that it was expected that the Messiah would come to heal.
 

NathanH83

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Since Isaiah answers your question, you see that it was expected that the Messiah would come to heal.

I think you’re missing Andrew’s point.
 

Andrew

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Since Isaiah answers your question, you see that it was expected that the Messiah would come to heal.
I just find it peculiar that Jesus says "it is written" and then specifically quotes "and recovery of sight to the blind" and then literally goes around healing the blind, apparently it truly WAS written in the original text that the LXX was translated from so it was never an issue of concern before then.. that is until the much newer hebrew masoretic altered many prophetic verses making them appear broader and more vague.

This change doesn't effect you or I Lamm, but for the children of Israel it's a stumbling block put there by their fathers all the way back to the time of Christ, they who denied His miracles and desired to discredit His candidacy of the fulfillment of prophecy in the eyes of generations to come.
 

NathanH83

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Since Isaiah answers your question, you see that it was expected that the Messiah would come to heal.


The phrase “and recovery of sight to the blind” is missing from Isaiah 61:1 from most Bible translations today, even though Jesus confirmed that this phrase SHOULD be there when Jesus stood up in his hometown’s synagogue and quoted from the Hebrew scroll of Isaiah, as recorded in Luke 4:18.

I see no reason why any serious Christian should not be concerned about this.

I don’t know if you honestly missed Andrew’s point, or if you’re purposefully trying to deflect and ignore his point. But either way, I see no reason why this shouldn’t be taken seriously.
 

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The phrase “and recovery of sight to the blind” is missing from Isaiah 61:1 from most Bible translations today, even though Jesus confirmed that this phrase SHOULD be there when Jesus stood up in his hometown’s synagogue and quoted from the Hebrew scroll of Isaiah, as recorded in Luke 4:18.

I see no reason why any serious Christian should not be concerned about this.

I don’t know if you honestly missed Andrew’s point, or if you’re purposefully trying to deflect and ignore his point. But either way, I see no reason why this shouldn’t be taken seriously.

You do realize that healing is giving sight, right?
 

NathanH83

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You do realize that healing is giving sight, right?

No prophet in the Old Testament ever healed someone who was blind from birth. Moses split the Red Sea, but he never healed the blind. Elijah raised a boy from the dead. But he never healed the blind.

But Isaiah 61:1 says that the “anointed one” (Messiah) is going to bring recovery of sight to the blind.

This is a very significant Messianic prophecy, since nobody had ever done this before.

Then along comes Jesus, who stands up in the synagogue, quotes Isaiah 61:1, sits down and says he just fulfilled this scripture verse, and then goes off healing blind people right and left.

This is very clear confirmation for the Jews that Jesus IS the promised Messiah.

Even one blind man who was healed, when being questioned by the Pharisees, acknowledged that nobody had ever healed a man blind from birth:

“Since the world began it has been unheard of that anyone opened the eyes of one who was born blind.”
-John 9:32

Even Jesus himself acknowledged that he did among them that which no one else had done:

“If I had not done among them the works which no one else did, they would have no sin; but now they have seen and also hated both Me and My Father.”
-John 15:24 - Bible Gateway passage: John 15:24 - New King James Version

The fact that Jesus was doing that which no one else had done -this was a HUGE piece of confirmation and evidence that Jesus IS the promised Messiah, and fulfilled Isaiah 61:1.

Now, the Pharisees could not deny that this miracle took place. They brought in the blind man’s parents and asked, “is this really your son?” And they said, “Yes this really is our son.”

The Pharisees asked, “Was he really born blind?” And the parents replied, “Yes he really was born blind.”

And, of course, everyone could see for themselves that the man now has the ability to see.

Now, Moses laid down a principle in the Old Testament…. The principle of 2 or 3 witnesses.

We’ve got the parents saying that this really is their son. There’s your 2 witnesses. You’ve got the man healed of blindness confirming these really are his parents. There’s your 3rd witness.

By the principle of 2 or 3 witnesses, it is undeniable that this man really was healed of blindness. The Pharisees CANNOT deny that this miracle took place without denying the principle of 2 or 3 witnesses, which was established through Moses. And they can’t deny the law of Moses.

So instead of acknowledging that Jesus fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah 61:1, they just ALTERED THE PROPHECY.

So you look up Isaiah 61:1 in the Hebrew Tanahk today (Hebrew Masoretic), and the phrase “and recovery of sight to the blind” is MISSING from the text! And since most Bibles are translated from the Hebrew Masoretic, then most Bible translations are missing this phrase from Isaiah 61:1.

The phrase is still in Luke 4:18, since Jesus quoted it. Luke comes from our Greek New Testament. But it’s missing from Isaiah 61:1 in most translations.

But the Greek Septuagint (the Greek Old Testament) was translated 250 years BEFORE Christ, and therefore reflects an OLDER Hebrew text, before the Jewish Pharisees and leaders had any motive to change text. They had no motive and no desire to change it BEFORE the time of Christ, because Jesus hadn’t fulfilled it yet. And the Greek Septuagint contains the phrase “and recovery of sight to the blind.”

And this is just one of HUNDREDS of examples of how the Greek Septuagint better reflects the original Hebrew.
 
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Andrew

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You do realize that healing is giving sight, right?
But we are addressing what is "written" in Luke 4:17-18 that Jesus reads out loud in the synagogue as he quotes directly from the scroll of Isaiah.

It's too huge an elephant of an anomaly to ignore when a much more ancient text source translation that predates the time of Jesus VALIDATES and CONFIRMS exactly what Jesus reads as "is written" only to vanish entirely when switched over to the far more recent Hebrew Masoretic text that failed to hold up to the very WORDS SPOKEN FROM THE MOUTH OF THE LORD.

You can defend the rather inconsistent and innacurate masoretic version of the Isaiah passage that omits the line all you want but you will never disprove the big fat fact that the LXX contains what IS WRITTEN in Isaiah and WHERE IT IS WRITTEN exactly as the authors of Luke had dictated to him from the very mouth of THE LORD Jesus Christ Himself!!
 
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NathanH83

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But we are addressing what is "written" in Luke 4:17-18 that Jesus reads out loud in the synagogue as he quotes directly from the scroll of Isaiah.

It's too huge an elephant of an anomaly to ignore when a much more ancient text source translation that predates the time of Jesus VALIDATES and CONFIRMS exactly what Jesus reads as "is written" only to vanish entirely when switched over to the far more recent Hebrew Masoretic text that failed to hold up to the very WORDS SPOKEN FROM THE MOUTH OF THE LORD.

You can defend the rather inconsistent and innacurate masoretic version of the Isaiah passage that omits the line all you want but you will never disprove the big fat fact that the LXX contains what IS WRITTEN in Isaiah and WHERE IT IS WRITTEN exactly as the authors of Luke had dictated to him from the very mouth of THE LORD Jesus Christ Himself!!

What elephant?
I don’t see no elephant.
I just see two people sitting on the couch.
I don’t see anything else.

773e68c9debfaff0cb6531e4f3ac2597.jpg
 

Lamb

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You two apparently are trying to bring in another apocrypha book to try to make a claim, aren't you?

Here's the thing. Jesus spoke of healing the blind and it wasn't always making them see physically but also spiritually. Isaiah covers that. There is no conspiracy.
 

Andrew

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You two apparently are trying to bring in another apocrypha book to try to make a claim, aren't you?

Here's the thing. Jesus spoke of healing the blind and it wasn't always making them see physically but also spiritually. Isaiah covers that. There is no conspiracy.

I promise you this has nothing to due with any apocrypha book.

Jesus quotes from Isaiah as it is written, Isaiah actually says "and recovery of sight to the blind", not paraphrased either but literally says "and recovery if sight to the blind" and Jesus literally quotes directly from the scrolls and the LXX confirms this for in it is written "and recovery of sight to the blind", now how is it possible that the Greek hits the mark spot on long before the Masoretic ever existed?
Unless Jesus misquoted Isaiah, I pray you don't accept that theory (I know you don't)

btw the Jews in the NT were constantly conspiring against Jesus and later on Paul warns Christians of Jews who are determined to throw them into confusion, Jesus calls them sons of their father the devil, the synagogue of Satan and outright liars... so yeah I'm not convinced they are so trustworthy.
 

NathanH83

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You two apparently are trying to bring in another apocrypha book to try to make a claim, aren't you?

Here's the thing. Jesus spoke of healing the blind and it wasn't always making them see physically but also spiritually. Isaiah covers that. There is no conspiracy.

Actually it has nothing to do with the Apocrypha directly. It has to do with Jesus. It has to do with Messianic prophecies Jesus fulfilled. It has to do with seeing the Jewish people come to faith in Christ, and removing the stumbling blocks. It has to do with the Greek Septuagint.

The study that Andrew is referencing is a study that I briefly mentioned in a video from 4 years ago. This was LONG before I started jumping into the issues with the Apocrypha.

And honestly, it’s appalling to me that you don’t take it seriously.

The phrase “and recovery of sight to the blind” is missing from the 61st chapter of Isaiah in your Bible. Look it up.

If you don’t believe that the Jewish leaders conspired to cover up the evidence that Jesus is the Messiah, then you don’t believe the scriptures when it says that the Pharisees paid off the Roman soldiers to lie about falling asleep on the job and the disciples stealing Jesus’ body.

You don’t think they would conspire?

Yes, they would.
And yes, they did.
 

Lamb

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Like I said, Isaiah speaks of healing by the Messiah.
 

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Like I said, Isaiah speaks of healing by the Messiah.

You’re not even listening to a word we’re saying.

Jesus said that the phrase “and recovery of sight to the blind” belongs in Isaiah 61. And it IS included in the Septuagint. But it’s missing from the Hebrew Masoretic.

I know you understand what we’re saying.
 

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You’re not even listening to a word we’re saying.

Jesus said that the phrase “and recovery of sight to the blind” belongs in Isaiah 61. And it IS included in the Septuagint. But it’s missing from the Hebrew Masoretic.

I know you understand what we’re saying.

You want a word for word text to try to prove your point, but Jesus was not contradicting what Isaiah said.
 

Andrew

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You want a word for word text to try to prove your point, but Jesus was not contradicting what Isaiah said.

LUKE 4:18 (below)
41e3c77a870f0c55b4eac0dedcdab1e2.jpg



ISAIAH 61:1-2 LXX (below)
9b6e743953e0336f9495493d80753e63.jpg



ISAIAH 61:1-2 MASORETIC TEXT (below)
55c52a4bd8237c66be0135acb079cd96.jpg
 

NathanH83

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You want a word for word text to try to prove your point, but Jesus was not contradicting what Isaiah said.

Of course Jesus didn’t contradict Isaiah.
THAT’S NOT WHAT WE’RE CLAIMING.

We’re claiming that the Masoretic corrupted what Isaiah said.

Jesus CORRECTLY quoted what Isaiah said.

See? You’re not listening.
 

Lamb

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Of course Jesus didn’t contradict Isaiah.
THAT’S NOT WHAT WE’RE CLAIMING.

We’re claiming that the Masoretic corrupted what Isaiah said.

Jesus CORRECTLY quoted what Isaiah said.

See? You’re not listening.

That's not how it was presented in the OP. Looks like Andrew is following in your footsteps of trying to switch what the OP represents?
 
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