MennoSota
Well-known member
- Joined
- Sep 24, 2017
- Messages
- 7,102
- Age
- 54
- Gender
- Male
- Religious Affiliation
- Christian
- Political Affiliation
- Moderate
- Marital Status
- Married
Why would you purposely baptize a person who is dead in their trespasses and sins and has no intention of repenting?... or being forbidden. Or that you give a rip as to whether things are done exactly as they are or aren't done it the Bible. We agree on those point.
BTW, there's no evidence of fat people baptized in the Bible, NOT ONE VERSE that even mentions fat people in this regard. So I'm sure you have a "NO FAT BAPTISM!" dogma and that your church never baptizes any over the weight of X.
Yes, forbidding children started in the late 16th Century. A radical synergist invented it; not because of any Scripture but because it conflicted with his radical synergism. We know that paedobaptism has existed since at least 140 AD at the very latest. So yes, your prohibition comes after the lack thereof.
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I don't even care if there is no restriction. I want to know why you would advocate for doing such a thing. Even more so, why do you stop the practice at a certain age of X? Please enlighten us.