How do you reconcile these two verses?

[Rens]

Copied from the link I posted:
Thanks Google for knowing everything.


We read about ABRAHAM (then still called Abram) in Genesis 12:8: “… there he built an altar to the LORD [YHWH] and called on the name of the LORD [YHWH].” Also, in Genesis 13:4: “And there Abram called on the name of the LORD [YHWH].” Note also Genesis 14:22, where Abram refers to God as “the LORD [YHWH], God Most High, the Possessor of heaven and earth.” In Genesis 22:14, we read: “And Abraham called the name of the place, The-LORD-Will-Provide [YHWH Yireh]…”
In Genesis 26:22, 25, we read about ISAAC: “So he called its name Rehoboth, because he said, ‘For now the LORD [YHWH] has made room for us…’ … So he built an altar there and called on the name of the LORD [YHWH]…”
When God spoke to JACOB in a dream, He revealed Himself in this way, as Genesis 28:13 reports: “And behold the LORD [YHWH] stood above it [ a ladder] and said, ‘I am the LORD [YHWH] God of Abraham your father and the God of Isaac…’” Compare also Genesis 28:21; 32:9. Even prior to his dream, Jacob had already referred to God as LORD or YHWH in Genesis 27:20.
In addition, the first human being who is reported as referring to God as YHWH is Eve. She said in Genesis 4:1: “I have acquired a man [Cain] from the LORD [YHWH]…” Later, at the time of Adam and Eve’s son Seth, “men began to call on the name of the LORD [YHWH]” (Genesis 4:26). We also read in Genesis 9:26 that Noah referred to God as “the LORD [YHWH], The God of Shem…” Finally, both Rachel and her father Laban knew God’s name, LORD or YHWH (Genesis 30:24, 27).


The commentary of Jamieson, Fausset and Brown points out that God’s statement is not one of affirmative confirmation, but is to be understood as a self-evident rhetorical question:
“… but by my name, etc.,—rather, interrogatively, by My name Jehovah [YHWH] was I not known to them? Am not I, the Almighty God, who pledged My honor for the fulfillment of the covenant, also the self-existent God who lives to accomplish it? Rest assured, therefore, that I shall bring it to pass…”
The New Scofield Reference Edition offers five explanations, the last four of which can be ruled out right away. But the first one is interesting and in harmony with the Jamieson, Fausset and Brown commentary. It says the following: “The statement, ‘By my name JEHOVAH [YHWH] was I not known to them,’ can also be translated as a rhetorical question, ‘By my name JEHOVAH [YHWH] was I not known to them?’”

 

[Pedrito]

Thanks to Ren for his contribution (Post #21 on Page 3).

We now have two explanations that demonstrate that the "inconsistency" that MoreCoffee seems bent on establishing, does not exist.

(Although I must confess that I find that the resulting statement in Exodus 6:3 as they would become according to Ren's explanation – a question contradicting a preceding statement – to be a little cumbersome and self-contradictory:
2 And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am Yahweh:
3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name Yahweh was I not known to them?


So it would seem that there is no support for there being internal Biblical inconsistencies that would open the door for "tradition" and post-apostolic conjecture to pontificate doctrines after all. Not in this case anyway.


(That lack of need extends to evident transcription errors as well. It also extends to post-apostolic additions, many of which have been formally identified, and which stick out like sore thumbs anyway, including a particularly obvious one that was finally admitted to by Catholic Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger – later Pope Benedict XVI, if I'm not mistaken.)


-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


And with respect to MoreCoffee's question in Post #20 on Page 2:

Are you contending that because name is in Exodus that Yahweh is a name while in Genesis because name is not used Yahweh is not a name?

I think I was merely pointing out that there is a sensible, uncontrived explanation, that demonstrates no inconsistency in God's recorded statement (KJV, NIV):

And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.

I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by my name the LORD I did not make myself known to them.

Is it not MoreCoffee that is contending – contending to the contrary?


-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


(The "YHWH" and "name" in other Scriptures quoted by Rens can also be seen to adhere to God's statement above, if anyone is interested. I have not presented them here, to preserve space.)

 

[MoreCoffee]

It seems to me that the two verses are best reconciled by reading them in their historical context. There's no need to contrive an explanation based on the meaning of YHWH. Why not remember that Moses is alleged to be the author and he wrote centuries after the events involving Jacob.