Lucian Hodoboc
Well-known member
- Joined
- Jan 1, 2019
- Messages
- 1,343
- Location
- Eastern Europe
- Gender
- Male
- Religious Affiliation
- Theist
- Political Affiliation
- Conservative
- Marital Status
- Single
- Acceptance of the Trinity & Nicene Creed
- No
Does God have to abide by logic and reason, or does His divine nature give Him the right to disregard logic and reason as far as His behavior goes?
If you watch this video, you might (will?) understand why God allowing suffering to happen is irrational regardless of whether the goal He wants to achieve outweighs the severity of the suffering. Due to His tri-omni attributes, He could achieve those same goals without the suffering, which makes the allowance of suffering in direct conflict with his omnibenevolence, and therefore illogical.
However, an argument could be made that God is not constrained by the principles of logic and reason and that He could act in any way He wants and have said actions be good in spite of them being classified by reason as evil. Do you think that is the case? Should God have the innate right to decide that something which is defined by human logic to be objectively evil, be good just because He calls it good?
If you watch this video, you might (will?) understand why God allowing suffering to happen is irrational regardless of whether the goal He wants to achieve outweighs the severity of the suffering. Due to His tri-omni attributes, He could achieve those same goals without the suffering, which makes the allowance of suffering in direct conflict with his omnibenevolence, and therefore illogical.
However, an argument could be made that God is not constrained by the principles of logic and reason and that He could act in any way He wants and have said actions be good in spite of them being classified by reason as evil. Do you think that is the case? Should God have the innate right to decide that something which is defined by human logic to be objectively evil, be good just because He calls it good?