I've debated Trinity on several blogs and forums and have never seen people use some of the verses to support Trinity.
I see Colossians 2:9 quoted a few places. Then the article quotes...
(Dt 6:4; Is 44:6; 48:12; 1 Ti 2:5).
Colossians 2:9 "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily."
The word Godhead means divinity. The KJV list the word 3 times but the word is actually only used ONCE. Some translations don't use it at all. The NIV is more accurate than the KJV...
"For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form and in Christ you have been brought to fullness. He is the head over every power and authority."
The word ‘dwells’ is in present tense. The present tense means Paul is speaking of the risen Christ. i.e. the spirit Christ received in the resurrection. The KJV uses the word ‘Godhead’ which is better translated ‘deity or divinity’ (or Godship) and it’s in the singular. That doesn’t support a triunity of beings or does it refer to deity of his earthly body. The word ‘deity’ doesn't infer a 'trinity' or that Jesus is fully God the Father.
Colossians 2:9 means the abundance of divinity dwells in Christ resurrected heavenly body. God has given to Jesus all the plentitude and abundance of godship and mightiness so that he “is the head of all principality and power.” This in no way implies a Trinity.
Deuteronomy 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:
It's beyond me why Trinitarians would use this verse in support of a Trinity. The verse clearly works AGAINST Trinity. Deuteronomy 6:4 is one of the strongest texts AGAINST the Trinity. God is 'one', not 'three-in-on' or some other plurality.
Trinitarians believe that the word 'ONE' AKA 'echad' in Deut. 6:4 indicates a 'mixed unity' or a combination (of beings).
Echad in Hebrew is the numeral 'one.' The word ONE means ONE! The plurality of the word is derived from the noun LORD - NOT from the word ONE/echad. There is no reference to the word 'one' as to a plurality of any kind. It's used of 'one' in number, 'the first' - in a series, 'one' in the sense of 'THE SAME,' and 'one' in the sense of "each or a certain one."
In the more than 250 times ONE/echad is used in the OT there is NO indication that it implies a combined unity.
Isaiah 44:6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.
Isaiah 48:12 Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last.
That's Jehovah - the Father speaking and I agree with the text. The phrase, "the First and the Last," is a title that is used five times in the Bible. Trinitarians make the assumption that since the same title applies to both the Father and the Son, they must both be God.
Revelation 1:17 And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:
After Jesus was resurrected he is called 'the first and the last'. Jesus had authority because his Father gave it to him.
Revelation 1:8 "I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty. (NIV)
These words apply to God, not to Christ. The KJV omitted the word God.
1Tim. 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the
man Christ Jesus;
This verse also works against a Trinity. The verse does shows us who Jesus really is - a man. Jesus had a human nature and IF Jesus had two natures, this would have been the perfect place for Paul to say it. The MAN Jesus is the mediator (one who intervenes, an arbitrator).
Then the article said,
"That the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are 3 distinct Persons is evident from Mt 3:13–17.
Let's look...
Mathew 3:13-17 "Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased."
The holy spirit is NEVER portrayed as a distinct person. The holy spirit and the enabling power of God. I've never understand how a co-equal trinity is pulled from those verses!
The voice of the Father is there, the dove represents the holy spirit, and Jesus is there. Where is this co-equal Trinity? IF the holy spirit is a distinct person, why doesn't it have a name? And why is this "third person' NOT FOUND' in or around the Throne of God as depicted in Revelation?
The Father speaks; the Son is baptized; the Holy Spirit descends like a dove.
Genesis 1:1-3 and Ps 33:6.
Gen. 1:1-3 "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters. And God said, Let there be light: and there was light."
Pasalm 33:6 "By the word of the LORD were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth."
Genesis 1 and John 1 work AGAINST the Trinity! Neither of them speak of a Trinity. The spirit of God is the power of God. Maybe someone can explain.
John 1:1-3, 14 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
V. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
There are 70 ways to interpret John 1:1-3.
The word - "WORD" - is better translated and understood as SPEECH or - the 'Saying Word'.
The verse is saying that in heaven three bear witness - God the Father - His spoken Word - and His power - the holy spirit.
The word "WORD" is 'SAYING or SPEECH.' Vines says, "a word or saying," also means, an account which one gives by word of mouth.
It's more logical to interpret the word - "WORD" - as the speech or logos- of God, NOT JESUS!
According to Thayer's the word 'WITH' means, "to the advantage of," toward, or "pertaining to" or "nearness at."
...and the word was PERTAINING TO God.
Better understood like it is in the interlinear, "and God was the spoken word."
In the beginning was God's spoken Word, and the spoken word was to God's advantage, and God's speech was the spoken word. V. 14 And the spoken word became flesh and dwelt among us.
Textus Receptus
Genesis 48:16???
"The Angel which redeemed me from all evil, bless the lads; and let my name be named on them, and the name of my fathers Abraham and Isaac; and let them grow into a multitude in the midst of the earth."
Isaiah 63:9-10 "In all their affliction he was afflicted, and the angel of his presence saved them: in his love and in his pity he redeemed them; and he bare them, and carried them all the days of old. But they rebelled, and vexed his holy Spirit: therefore he was turned to be their enemy,
and he fought against them."
Isaiah 48:16 "Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me."
I think I know where the author is going with those verses but I can't comment unless I know for sure.