- Joined
- Jun 12, 2015
- Messages
- 13,927
- Gender
- Male
- Religious Affiliation
- Lutheran
- Political Affiliation
- Conservative
- Marital Status
- Married
- Acceptance of the Trinity & Nicene Creed
- Yes
I think that any educated child in junior high who simply reads Hebrews 11 is going to come away from the chapter thinking that the author of Hebrews was referencing the many biblical figures throughout biblical history that are recorded in scripture.
I think it's a HUGE and baseless leap. Hebrews is (as you admit) referencing a historical EVENT, not a book. And a LOT of history is referenced in the Bible, that does not mean whatever source for that is therefore inerrant, fully canonical, divinely inscripturated Scripture - it's simply A source for history.
There are MANY actual BOOKS referenced in the Bible (not just events, but BOOKS), referenced verbatim, specifically BY NAME. Given as the source of the historical information the biblical author is sharing. I've listed some for you several times. Yet you don't argue those are therefore inerrant, fully canonical, divinely inscripturated Scriptures (no one does).
IF you had said, "It's likely the author of Hebrews knew about the Maccabee revolt because of the book we know as 2 Maccabees" well... I don't think anyone would challenge that... that would be a fallible opinion of likelihood that many would agree with (including me). Your huge LEAP is in declaring that this proves that Jews and Christians had declared that book to be inerrant, fully canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God. No. It makes it perhaps likely that it was accepted as a source of historical information. That's it. That all. What you are doing is making a huge leap that is entirely unsubstantiated....and not at all reasonable.
.