We are not told one way or the other with respect to the circumstances of Lydia’s household. We don’t have any idea how many people were in her household, or how old they were. We don’t know whether the members of her household were with her in the place of prayer outside the gate to the riverside, where she heard the gospel, or whether they had contact with Paul and his companions during their subsequent stay in Lydia’s home (Acts 16:12, 15). Either Paul and his companions shared the gospel with the rest of Lydia’s household leading to their faith and baptism, or the members of her household were baptized without any connection to a personal gospel response. We don’t know, and thus we should be cautious about drawing too much from this text.
@Lanman87
Thank you.
Thus you prove that the entire Anabaptist apologetic is wrong. It's all based on the (silly, rejected) rubric that we can DO only as illustrated in the Book of Acts. They read Acts and dogmatically insist, "ALL the Baptisms that happen to be recorded in the Book of Acts were DONE to those over the age of Who-Knows, all had publicly and adequately proven that they had saving faith, all were fully immersed under water. THUS, we must do the same (forget that all of them where baptized by Hebrews, that all of them happened in certain geographical area - that doesn't matter)." But you prove that's not true.
In these "Household Baptisms" we don't know the age of anyone. We don't know if ALL of them had given adequate public proof of having saving faith. We don't know if they were new converts. As you repeatedly state, we don't know if all those Anabaptist declarations (on which their new dogma is based) are true.
Lanman8 said:
Not until the 5th or 6th Century
Where's the proof of this?
I thought you rejected practice.
Here's just one (and not the earliest) evidence, “Baptize first the children, and if they can speak for themselves let them do so. Otherwise, let their parents or other relatives speak for them” (
Hippolytus. The Apostolic Tradition 21:16 [
A.D. 215]). Not only are children allowed (and not forbidden) but it seems they had precedence. And this is from 215, not after 400. And lest you think that the koine Greek word here for "children" can only mean "those over the age of Who-Knows," note that he mentions including those who "cannot speak for themselves" (perhaps suggests those under two?).
Can you quote a Church Father stating, "We art forbidden to baptize any under the age of Who-Knows and who hath not first publicly proven they have saving faith." Or "We canst ONLY baptize new converts and no others." Can you quote any stating, "Baptism is only an outward symbol of a personal decision and doth nothing."
Blessings!
- Josiah
PS
See post 34.
.