@1689Dave
@atpollard
Let's use another example.....
Was Jesus born in BETHLEHEM?
Well, the following Scriptures verbatim, literally, word-for-word STATE so.
Matthew 2:1 "Jesus was born in Bethlehem"
There's another verse where certain persons state that was the prophecy (but don't actually state that it happened)
Matthew 2:5
We have another verse that states Mary and Joseph traveled to Bethlehem but it doesn't actually state Jesus was born there
Luke 2:4 "To the City of David, which is called Bethlehem."
And another that while not exactly saying Jesus was born in Bethlehem, it does say that's where the shepherds went to worship him.
Luke 2:15
SO....
1. We have one verse that specifically, verbatim states Jesus was born in Bethlehem (Matthew 2:1)
2. We have three that allude to that but don't actually state it (Matthew 2:5, Luke 2:4, Luke 2:15)
And this has been viewed by all Christians as true (no spin, no denial).
No Church Council has affirmed this.
Do you accept that Jesus was born in Bethlehem? Based on the the clear words of one text and 3 others that support that? That and the universal belief of the whole church (the Body of Christ) over the many centuries?
Do you think that it's good to accept that Jesus was born in Bethlehem?
Let's say some individual.... 1600 years later.... dogmatically insists that Jesus was NOT born in Bethlehem but in Rome? His opinion. Do you think it might be necessary for him to find a verse that states, "Jesus was born in Rome" or at least "Jesus was not born in Bethehem?"
Well....
We have at least five different Scriptures that flat-out, verbatim, literally, in black-and-white words on the page STATES, proclaims and announces that Jesus died for all, for everyone. And several others that support that. FAR better, MUCH stronger support for this than for Jesus born in Bethlehem.
And this has been supported by the Church Fathers, by an Ecumenical Church Council, by John Calvin (founder of Reformed protestantism) and is taught by the Orthodox Church, the Catholic Church, the Lutheran Church, the Anglican Church, the Methodist Church, by many Baptist churches and well beyond. And has been believed by Christians for 2000 years.
Do you think that theorist 1500 years later should have at least one verse that specifically states "No, Jesus did not die for all but only for some?" Shouldn't we embrace what Scripture states rather than what it doesn't? What Christianity has so boldly embraced (Orthodox, Catholic and Protestant) that echos the exact words Scripture states?
Could one be correct if they stated "Jesus was not God" because they found a verse that calls him a man (and remember: your aplogetic permits the word "ONLY" to be inserted into texts)? Never mind the texts that teach He is God (fewer and less clear than the ones that state He died for all).... just put an "ONLY" in front of "man" and there goes Scripture, the Church Fathers, the Church Councils, the Creeds and the faith of Christians for 2000 years.
Just something to think about.....
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