@1689Dave
1. John 3:16 is not the only verse that states Universal Atonement. You have not even one that states that Jesus did NOT die for all but ONLY, EXCLUSIVELY, SOLELY for some unknown few.
2. "Hate" means to very much disapprove. "Agape" means unconditional love, a quality that flows from lover not the lovee (LOL). I have two sons. I often hate them (disapprove strongly what they are doing) and always love them. They are not opposite. "When we were yet enemies of God, Christ died for us." The whole point of grace is that embraces those who do NOT earn or deserve it.
3. You seen to have no clue what grace even means. You seem to think it is divine approval for sinlessness. No, it is a divine blessing and gift to those who do NOT deserve, those of whom Hi strongly disapproves. He died for SINNERS, not the SINLESS.
Does the Bible state that Jesus died for all? (Universal Atonement)
Just a few Scriptures that specifically, verbatim state Universal Atonement -
Hebrews 2:9 But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death
for everyone.
2 Corinthians 5:14 For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has
died for all
2 Corinthians 5:15 And
he died for all
1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself as a ransom
for all.
1 Timothy 2:5-6 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a ransom
for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.
Does the Bible state that Jesus did NOT die for all but ONLY, EXCLUSIVELY, SOLELY for some unknown few? (Limited Atonement)
Crickets.
+ There is a verse that says "Jesus died for the Elect" but none that say ONLY for the Elect. And there are verses that state that Jesus died for us (Christians) but none that state ONLY for us (indeed, see
1 John 2:2). And without the "only" the point is unsubstantiated. Apologists of this view must employ a silly logical fallacy, one illustrated by this: "Ford makes cars, ergo ONLY Ford makes cars." Obviously, that's a logical fallacy (the same one Calvinists use here). The whole apologetic has not one Scripture that states their point. It's based entirely on a logical fallacy.
+ And of course if this is true, then no one can know if Jesus' death is for THEM (odds are, it's not). And no way to know if their trust in that death for THEM means anything at all since they can't know if it was for them (probably not).
Is faith necessary for personal justification?
“God so loved the world that He gave His only Son that
whoever believes in Him will not perish but has everlasting life!” (
John 3:16),
“Everyone that
believes in Christ receives forgiveness of sins through His name” (
Acts 10:43)
“Sirs, what must we do to be saved?” They replied, “
Believe in the Lord Jesus and you will be saved.” (
Acts 16:30-31)
“For by grace you have been
saved through faith in Christ, and this is not your own doing, it is
the gift of God” (
Ephesians 2:8)
+ Does Scripture state that if Jesus died for you, then you are ergo personally justified because faith is meaningless, irrelevant to personal justification? Does it state that if Jesus died for you, you can repudiate Him, denounce Him, reject that He died for you, spit in His face and it doesn't matter cuz Jesus died for you? No. Is Dave's apologetic valid that insists, "If Jesus died for all then all are saved"? No.
+ Does Scripture state that faith is a good work of fallen, unregenerate, atheistic unbelievers - and thus "works righteousness" and perhaps related to Pelagianism? Nope. It says faith is the work and gift of God.
+ Does Scripture state that if Jesus died for you, you therefore have faith in that? No.
Scripture says that the Cross is necessary for personal justification.
Scripture says that faith is necessary for personal justification.
Never does it state that ONLY one (and not the other) is necessary.
What is Universal Atonement?
"Jesus died for all." That's it. Those four words. That's the doctrine. That's the teaching.
"Universal Atonement" is the common English term or moniker used today among theologians for the teaching that Jesus died for all. It does not teach that all are therefore personally justified (personal salvation) - that requires another aspect: faith. It is this: Jesus died for all. We don't always use that English moniker (it never appears in the Lutheran Confessions) but that's the teaching. Jesus died for all.
This is the verbatim echo of Scripture. And the declaration of the Council of Quiercy (853 AD). It is the teaching in the Eastern Orthodox Church, the Catholic Church, the Lutheran Church, the Anglican Church and beyond (although not all use the same English moniker for the teaching).
It is simply (AND ONLY) the echo of Hebrew 2:9 etc.
And it does mean that no one needs to guess as to whether Jesus died for THEM, whether the Cross is for THEM (Calvinists telling them it's probably not, odds are not so). No, it's for all people. Am I a people? Yup, so..... Thus if I trust/rely/apprehend that, I'm doing so to something THERE, something real and for me - not a phantom, empty grasping at air. We can proclaim the Gospel to EVERYONE and not be lying, Jesus IS there for THEM, faith in Him is not in vain. They can trust that He died for THEM because He did.
The repudiation of this (Limited Atonement) has not one verse that says this, none "Jesus did NOT die for all but ONLY, SOLELY, EXCLUSIVELY for some unknown few." It not only rests on a complete lack of any Scriptures (indeed, flies in the face of SO MANY that verbatim state the exact opposite) but it's based entirely on a logical fallacy and creates a terror of conscience since no one knows if they are among those lucky few for whom the Cross is there for them.
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