Don’t you think there’s possibility that some of the Apocryphal books were in the Jews’ Bible prior to the start of Christianity?
Well....
1. There were no books then (books were invited centuries later... and the concept of a Bible also came centuries later). There were a few (2 or 3 perhaps) LISTS of what some considered "scripture"in some sense, but no books, no Bibles.
2. Yes, it's not only possible but certain that SOME (important word!) books which you MIGHT (perhaps) consider Apocrypha (thus, not canonical) were among books Jews used and probably thought of as Scripture. I don't think anyone here has disagreed with that (but then you've admitted you don't necessarily read what people say.
3. Now, that does not prove that ERGO all were viewed equally or even canonically... it does not prove that some mysterious Ruling Body of Judaism declared "them" (which?) to be Scripture or inerrant or canonical or inspired... it does not prove that Christianity considered "them" (which?) to be anything or some mysterious Ruling Body of all Christianity declared them to be anything.... it does not prove some Jewish conspiracy or some Christian conspiracy... it just means that for the Jews, what is and is not canonical was an open question.
Nathan87 said:
And MAYBE that's the reason we find earliest Christians quoting them?
Well, we can find a FEW (3, 4, maybe even 10) quoting from this "them." They also quoted from the Church Fathers (a lot!), from philosophers, etc. Christians (including you) often quote from things beyond the 39 OT or 27 NT books - even YouTubes, movie and TV videos, etc. But do we find a lot of Christians stating "And 4 Maccabees is equal to the Pentetuch, it is inerrant, fully canonical, inspired words of God?" No, we see folks quoting them (as Christians at times still do.... Luther quoted from SOME a lot, even though he especially stated that they are NOT canonical, NOT to be used to source or norm dogma, NOT equal to the rest).
And yes, of course, they would use a translation - the common one - because few of them could read Hebrew. Just like here, many quote from some English translation because most here can't read Hebrew. Simple, huh? Doesn't substantiate anything except people who can't read the original language of a work might read a translation of it. Nothing more.
If when the evidence points in one direction .....
And the key there is
IF. Not, when a person makes a remarkable claim with ZERO substantiation for it and admits they don't even care if it's true, therefore we are to just swallow it whole. As you note, there needs to be evidence, substantiation. What we've found here is NOTHING. Your "if" has simply been circumvented.
Protestant and Lutheran denomination tells you
I doubt you have a clue what my Lutheran denomination tells me about this.
I doubt you have a clue what my narrative is.... you've admitted to not reading things. I've stated it many times but again, you don't read. And you've never asked me for my view and so I doubt you care. More claims.... no substantiation.
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Nathan87}And maybe that’s the reason we find the earliest of Christians quoting from them?[/quote said: