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It's very simple. The books labeled by Jerome as "Apocrypha"
The same books that were included in the original KJV 1611 that are no longer included.
Why Jerome? Why is his list THE definitive, authoritative, declaration of all Christianity?
No, the books Jerome included is NOT the same as the books the Church of England included (and thus the 1611 KJV).
Sometimes you say it's all the books in the LXX (but you won't list them).... sometimes it's the books mentioned by the singular, individual RCC at Florence or Trent... sometimes you say it's the books included in the KJV of 1611... sometimes you suggest it's the books Calvin included or Luther included... but you seem to miss a couple of critical points: NONE OF THESE LISTS ARE THE SAME. Which is why I keep asking WHICH books? And also, just because they are in some way included does not mean ergo they are declared to be equal in every sense. As I noted, roughly HALF of the content of my Bible tome is not regarded by anyone to be inerrant, fully canonical, divinely inscripturated words of God equal to everything else. You keep evading this point... Luther is quoted as declaring the Prayer of Manessah to be EQUAL to all the others, fully canonical, inerrant, divinely inspired when what he actually said is that it is NOT so. What he said is that his list (which is NOT the same as Jerome's, NOT the same as the KJV, NOT the same as the Greek Orthodox Church, NOT the same as the Coptic Orthodox Church, NOT the same as the KJV) contains some books that are only "good and useful to read." He said the same of several other books.
And you seem to stress that this "they" must be in every tome sold with the word "BIBLE" on it. But you've never substantiated that, or why other books and materials cannot be included... why a tome I have which only contains the NT should be illegal?
And you seem to stress that if a book is reference by some mysterious group, it THUS must be printed in a tome sold that has BIBLE on the cover. But I've given MANY such books (even named specifically in the Bible itself) and you don't give a rip about them. So, being used by some group doesn't mean anything to you... so why is it so meaningful to you?
"They" include important lessons of moral obedience such as good will toward all men, charity and thanksgivings rather than pressing on the legal issues of Judaism and tribalism.
NO ONE known to me insists that the books one person included in his translation (but not necessarily as canonical) doesn't contain useful and good stuff. I could say the very same thing about at least 100 books that I've read (and I'm sure is true for millions of books that I have not read). But here's where we seem to disagree: I don't think that necessarily makes all of them inerrant, canonical or divinely-inscripturated, or that there should be some legal requirement that all books sold with "BIBLE" on the cover MUST include all those books between its covers. Yes - I hold it's good to have those books available (they should not be legally banned) but I don't agree with you they MUST ALL be in any book sold with the word "BIBLE" on the cover. And brother, EVERY BOOK Jerome translated is freely available to anyone who wants it. EVERY Christian is allowed to access it. EVERY preacher is allowed to use it. They are all on the internet. In pretty much every language. For free.
Your claim that Christianity put "them" in is just false. Which is why you can't quote any Ruling Body of all Christianity doing that. It's a false claim. And your claim that some mysterious, unidentified person when into churches and ripped out "these" from the pew Bibles is also a false claim. Your constant insistence about "put in" and "ripped out" are both simply baseless. And I think you've proven that.
Now, I fully agree that SOME books beyond the "66" were once used by Christians more often than today; this especially true for Protestants. Yup. But this does not mean they RIPPED OUT a bunch of books you can't identify, RIPPED out books that Christianity had declared to be equal to the rest, books Christianity declared are canonical, inerrant, divinely-inspired. It's just absurd, my brother. Nathan tried to imply that some unidentified person at his Assembly of God church discouraged him from reading from "them". And maybe (I have no reason to doubt such) ... but that does not prove that ERGO "they" were PUT IN the Bible by some official Ruling Body of Christianity and some unknown person RIPPED "THEM" OUT. It means this (and only this): Some person he didn't identify at his Assembly of God parish discouraged him from reading some book he didn't identify. Nothing more. Apples and oranges, I'm certain you agree.
Friend, if you want to read and use and quote Psalm 151, GO AHEAD! You are not forbidden. But if you insist that CHRISTIANITY put that in the Bible as equal to the rest, inerrant, canonical, divinely inscripturated (and this "someone" ripped it out), then you need to substantiate those claims.
See the rest of post 19
.