.
• John 20:28 . . Thomas said to him: "My Lord and my God!"
"God" is translated from the Greek word theós (theh'-os).
Many moons ago; I asked some Watchtower Society missionaries to explain to me
why the Watchtower Society translated that particular theós in upper case seeing
as how in their theology; only Jehovah should be referred to as a god spelled with
an upper case G. Well; they were too inexperienced to explain and my question left
them stumped.
The fact of the matter is: in John 20:28, theós is modified by the Greek definite
article "ho". So by the Society's own rules; its translators had to use upper case
because it's normally their practice that whenever theós is modified by the Greek
definite article, then the upper case is required.
But I don't recommend making an issue of capitalization in this particular case
because skilled Witnesses can easily dodge that bullet. Instead, focus the attention
upon Thomas' possessive pronoun because he didn't just declare that Jesus was a
god. No, he clearly declared that Jesus was "my" god. Here's what it looks like in
the Kingdom Interlinear:
"the god of me"
Thomas was a Jew; so his association with Jehovah began with Abraham way back
in the seventeenth chapter of Genesis. In a nutshell, God voluntarily covenanted
with Abraham's posterity to be their god.
Centuries later, Abraham's posterity entered into a covenant with Jehovah in the
books of Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy. They accepted that
covenant voluntarily and under oath, i.e. of their own free will; which is really
important because the covenant forbids them to possess more than one god. No
longer would Jehovah be a god to them; He would be their only god.
• Ex 20:1-3 . . And God proceeded to speak all these words, saying: I am Jehovah
your God, who have brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of
slaves. You must not have any other gods against my face.
"against my face" is a combination of two Hebrew words that essentially refer to
God's competitors. In other words: it is not Jehovah's wishes to have a market
share of His people's affections; no, He'll settle for nothing less than 100%. (cf.
Mark 12:28-30)
Now; if the apostle Thomas was a Torah-trained Jew, then he was fully aware that
possessing a second god along with Jehovah— in effect possessing multiple gods
--would incur the covenant's curse upon himself.
• Deut 27:26 . . Cursed is the one who will not put the words of this law in force by
doing them.
The way I see it: the Society has two options. Either the apostle Thomas knew what
he was doing when he addressed Jesus as his god, or he meant to say something
else.
Now, if the apostle Thomas knew what he was doing when he addressed Jesus as
his god, then the rank and file need to ask around and find out why it is that Jesus
Christ was the apostle Thomas' god but he isn't the Watchtower Society's god.
Plus: I would really like to know how it is that the apostle Thomas and the
Watchtower Society are poles apart in their opinions of Christ's divine status when
Thomas actually associated with Jesus and was one of his close personal friends.
FAQ: If Jesus isn't/wasn't Thomas' god, then why didn't Jesus strenuously object
when his apostle addressed him as such?
REPLY: That's a very intelligent question because Jesus said, in so many words; it was not
his intention to annul the old covenant. (Matt 5:17-19). In other words; were Jesus
not actually Thomas' god, then Jesus himself would've fallen under the curse for
accepting his apostle's statement without protest.
_