Question....
For those who support that abortion is simply the sole choice of the mother.... any or no "reason" is fine as long as it belongs to the mother.... and includes the choice of killing her innocent, defenseless son or daughter... right up to the moment when the last cell on the last toe exits the birth canal (even if the head is pushed so that that toe remains in the canal so that the baby's neck can still be cut).... all that is morally good and right. The position of the pro-abortion camp in the USA, Communist China and North Korea.... then why THAT point in time????? That microsecond...;. that event.... the last cell of the baby allowed to leave the birth canal?
Why is it morally good and right BEFORE the last cell is allowed to exit the birth canal but not a microsecond later? Or one day after that? Or one year after that? What happens as that last cell is allowed to exit the birth canal that makes it morally good BEFORE then but immoral after that?????
Might children be regarded as unwanted AFTER that moment? Even if not so BEFORE that moment? If "wanted" and 'unwanted" is the determining issue for the morality of terminating a human life, then what difference does it make if that last cell has exited the birth canal? Might a mother determine her child is unwanted AFTER that last cell exited the birth canal? What if that happens when the child turned 13? Why is "unwanted" make it morally good at one second before the last cell exits the birth canal but not on the 13th birthday if "unwanted" by the mother is the issue?????
And what if the mother felt she could afford the baby before that last cell exited the canal but then she gets fired from work and now can't afford her baby? If it's okay to kill her BEFORE that last cell exited because she can't afford her, why not a week later when she can't afford her???? If economics is the moral determining factor, why before but not after?
What if someone THOUGHT they were having a boy suddenly discovers at the birth event that well, it's a girl.... can't the mother choose to "terminate" that girl because she doesn't want a girl and didn't know she was having one before then? Shouldn't abortion be allowed for at least some time AFTER birth????? And what if it's discovered the little girl is disabled in some way and that wasn't known before birth.. but is discovered one year later.... and the mother doesn't want a disabled child, why can't she kill her daughter who is not wanted???? She didn't know this before birth, not until a year later, but it's okay to kill someone who is disabled, but why before the last cell is allowed to exist the birth canal (when this wasn't known) but not okay one year later??????
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