If the prophecies in Daniel 8 cannot be understood without Maccabees, then doesn’t that prove Maccabees belongs in the Bible?

NathanH83

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Daniel 8 prophesies Alexander the Great will defeat the Persians, and His Kingdom divide up into 4 sections. That’s fulfilled in 1 Maccabees chapter 1.

We cannot understand the prophecies in Daniel 8 without the history recorded in 1 Maccabees. This is clear evidence that Maccabees is a part of canonical scripture.
 

Andrew

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It does but unfortunately in 1816 the Bible Society made up our minds for us and ripped it out of The Holy Bible so that Protestants don't 'piously' backslide into Catholicism... oh and it saved the publishers $$ by omitting them.

Marginal notes that included references to Maccabees were at one time used greatly and solely BY protestants as they established churches in the Americas... most protestants today completely deny that fact.
 

Josiah

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Daniel 8 prophesies Alexander the Great will defeat the Persians, and His Kingdom divide up into 4 sections. That’s fulfilled in 1 Maccabees chapter 1.

We cannot understand the prophecies in Daniel 8 without the history recorded in 1 Maccabees. This is clear evidence that Maccabees is a part of canonical scripture.


Daniel 8 does not mention Alexander the Great. I guess you didn't read the chapter.


While your INTERPRETATION may be valid, you are wrong in two ways...

1. It is possible to know this bit of Persian history entirely apart from the single book of First Maccabees..... if that book didn't exist, we'd know about this history. So, to know the history, we have ZERO need of First Maccabees.

2. You continue to make the ABSURD and SILLY assumption that if a writing contains helpful knowledge, ERGO it must be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God. This is near the top of THE most absurd assumptions I've ever encountered! Friend, I suspect there are MILLIONS - maybe tens of millions - of writings that contain helpful information. By your assumption, every Bible would need to be nearly the size of the Congressional Library.

Your posts continue to amaze and stun. Where do you get this stuff?



- Josiah



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Andrew

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Daniel 8 does not mention Alexander the Great. I guess you didn't read the chapter.


While your INTERPRETATION may be valid, you are wrong in two ways...

1. It is possible to know this bit of Persian history entirely apart from the single book of First Maccabees..... if that book didn't exist, we'd know about this history. So, to know the history, we have ZERO need of First Maccabees.

2. You continue to make the ABSURD and SILLY assumption that if a writing contains helpful knowledge, ERGO it must be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God. This is near the top of THE most absurd assumptions I've ever encountered! Friend, I suspect there are MILLIONS - maybe tens of millions - of writings that contain helpful information. By your assumption, every Bible would need to be nearly the size of the Congressional Library.

Your posts continue to amaze and stun. Where do you get this stuff? Why don't you think about them before copy/pasting them?



- Josiah



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But Maccabees is not secular history and many secular accounts come later on..
That's like saying every historical biblical event recorded by Josephus makes the Bibles retelling obsolete and since we have Josephus' account, there really is no point in having the same accounts in the Bible.
 

TonyC7

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Daniel 8 prophesies Alexander the Great will defeat the Persians, and His Kingdom divide up into 4 sections. That’s fulfilled in 1 Maccabees chapter 1.

We cannot understand the prophecies in Daniel 8 without the history recorded in 1 Maccabees. This is clear evidence that Maccabees is a part of canonical scripture.

Hey Nathan, ever read Tommy Ice's book The Case for Zionism? He discusses historical fulfillments of Old Testament prophecies related to the first worldwide regathering of Israel in 1948 etc. You cannot understand those Old Testament prophecies without books like Ice's that record the history of the fulfillments. Should we consider Ice's book canon?

The point is, I just don't understand your logic. There is no rule anywhere that Bible prophecies will always be fully recorded and explained in future canonical books. By that logic you must be expecting a future canonical book to be written near the end of the eschatological Tribulation that records the fulfillments of all of the Revelation prophecies?

An easy way to spot erroneous doctrine and beliefs is when they are inconsistent.
 

Josiah

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Funny you mention Josephus, my friend. His writing are FULL of useful information, especially useful for understanding the Bible. So, why aren't you and Nathan demanding that all his writings are THUS inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and every publishing house must be required by law to include them all in every tome with "BIBLE" written on the cover?



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Andrew

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Funny you mention Josephus, my friend. His writing are FULL of useful information, especially useful for understanding the Bible. So, why aren't you and Nathan demanding that all his writings are THUS inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and every publishing house must be required by law to include them all in every tome with "BIBLE" written on the cover?



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No no no, YOU are the one telling US that wherever there is secular historical documentation of events that aligns with a biblical account then the biblical account does not belong in biblical canon since the account is recorded elsewhere.

In ALL prophetic accounts that came to pass we find IN the OT and NT!!
1 and 2 Maccabees is no exception
 

NathanH83

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Funny you mention Josephus, my friend. His writing are FULL of useful information, especially useful for understanding the Bible. So, why aren't you and Nathan demanding that all his writings are THUS inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and every publishing house must be required by law to include them all in every tome with "BIBLE" written on the cover?



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Josephus was never included in anyone’s Bibles. No copy of the Septuagint ever contained Josephus. No church councils ever accepted Josephus as scripture. Your argument is ridiculous and you know it. Maccabees has lots of support. There’s very good reasons to believe Maccabees belongs in the Bible.
 

NathanH83

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Hey Nathan, ever read Tommy Ice's book The Case for Zionism? He discusses historical fulfillments of Old Testament prophecies related to the first worldwide regathering of Israel in 1948 etc. You cannot understand those Old Testament prophecies without books like Ice's that record the history of the fulfillments. Should we consider Ice's book canon?

The point is, I just don't understand your logic. There is no rule anywhere that Bible prophecies will always be fully recorded and explained in future canonical books. By that logic you must be expecting a future canonical book to be written near the end of the eschatological Tribulation that records the fulfillments of all of the Revelation prophecies?

An easy way to spot erroneous doctrine and beliefs is when they are inconsistent.

I haven’t heard about that book. Sounds interesting.

Maccabees was in the Greek Septuagint. Still is today. The Septuagint was created by Jews, and accepted by the early church, and accepted by many churches today. That’s why multiple early church councils declared Maccabees to be scripture. You’re only opposed to it because you naively believe in the unbelieving Jews who removed it from scripture and claim it was never there to begin with.

Tommy Ice’s book is a modern book that was never included in any Septuagint, never accepted by any early church council, and there’s no reason to believe the Jews before Christ had accepted it as scripture originally. It didn’t even exist in the early church, let alone accepted by any early church.

Your question is ridiculous and absurd. Anyone with a basic knowledge of church history should be able to see right through your ridiculous logic.
 

Josiah

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Josephus was never included in anyone’s Bibles.


You are being evasions and deflective.

The point was that First Maccabees contains a historical report that helps YOU to understand something in Daniel. My point was LOTS of books (tens of millions of them?) contain historical information that might prove helpful to someone - an author of some was SPECIFICALLY mentioned, by name. And yet you do not consider his books to be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and every publishing house on the planet must be legally required to include them in any tome with "BIBLE" printed on the cover.

Again, your circular reasoning based on a false assumption is absurd. You have ZERO evidence that First Maccabees was EVER declared to be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God by any official decision by any ruling body of all Judaism or Christianity. Friend, I wonder when it will dawn on you, it is IMPOSSIBLE to take out something never put in. When will that dawn on you? You seem to continue to make the SILLY assumption that if a book contains good history or if it was ever quoted by anyone or if it ever was collected with books generally accepted as canonical, ERGO it must be inerrant, fully/equally canonical. It is one of THE most absurd, thoughtless, illogical arguments I've ever heard or read.

Again, if ANY book is helpful to you..... then NO ONE on the planet Earth has forbid you from reading it, using it, quoting it. And ON ONE on the planet Earth has forbidden any publishing house to include (or exclude) any books from a tome with "BIBLE" written on the cover. When will reality dawn on you? And you simply choose to ignore that NEVER has any Ruling Body of all Christianity EVER declared what is and is not inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God. You know this but choose to ignore it in order to pursue your BASELESS point about some mysterious (unidentified) Ruling Body of All Christianity putting something in..... then another myterious (unidentified) going into all churches,gathering up the pew Bibles and ripping out some mysterious "them" (never identified) and your silly BASELESS claim that publishing houses have been forbidden by some mysterious unidentified body from including this mysterious unidentified "them" from any tome with "BIBLE" appearing on the cover. It's just silly. It's absurd. It's WRONG. When will reality matter to you?



No church councils ever accepted Josephus as scripture.

NO Ecumenical Church Council ever accepted ANYTHING as Scripture. Study all seven of them.... I have. NONE of them EVER even considered the subject. Yes, the LDS in the 19th Century made a decision for IT ITSELF but not for Christianity or Judaism or Islam.... The RCC did so for it itself alone in the 15th Century.... the Anglican Church did so in the 16th Century for it itself alone... and the dioceses of Rome did so for it itself... but none of these agree with each other and none of these are Christian Church Councils, they (at most) were local, regional or sectarian gatherings. Sorry, it's just actual history. Your ASSUMPTION of some official, pan-Christian, binding declaration by some non-existant Ruling Body is just myth.... and you know it. We all do. When will reality matter to you?


IF you want to read any book, go ahead. Contrary to your claim, NO ONE and NOTHING is stopping you. IF you own a publishing house and want to include some stuff in it, GO AHEAD, there is NO ONE and NOTHING forbidding you from doing so. When will this reality dawn on you?




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Josiah

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No no no, YOU are the one telling US that wherever there is secular historical documentation of events that aligns with a biblical account then the biblical account does not belong in biblical canon since the account is recorded elsewhere.


No, no, no. YOU are the one insisting that some never-identified mysterious corpus of books was put IN the Bible, declared to be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God by some Ruling Body of Christianity. You and Nathan just refuse to name this Ruling Body or meeting or quote the official declaration (or even what books you are talking about....). YOU are the ones claiming that some never-identified person gathered up all pew bibles and ripped "them" (?) out but you won't state who did that and when. YOU are the ones claiming that some mysterious unidentfied Body has forbidden publishing houses from including the mysterious "them" from tomes with "BIBLE" written on the cover. YOU are the ones claiming that if a book contains something YOU find helpful, thus it IS the inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God that the Ruling Body of Christianity officially declared so (but you won't say what or where or when).


Friend, NO ONE is telling ANYONE what they may or may not read in this regard. NO ONE is telling ANY publishing house what they may or may not put in tomes with "BIBLE" on the cover. Millions of books contain helpful information.... MILLIONS of them, there's no reason to believe ERGO they all must be Scripture and legally required to be in all Bibles.




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Andrew

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No, no, no. YOU are the one insisting that some never-identified mysterious corpus of books was put IN the Bible, declared to be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God by some Ruling Body of Christianity. You and Nathan just refuse to name this Ruling Body or meeting or quote the official declaration (or even what books you are talking about....). YOU are the ones claiming that some never-identified person gathered up all pew bibles and ripped "them" (?) out but you won't state who did that and when. YOU are the ones claiming that some mysterious unidentfied Body has forbidden publishing houses from including the mysterious "them" from tomes with "BIBLE" written on the cover. YOU are the ones claiming that if a book contains something YOU find helpful, thus it IS the inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God that the Ruling Body of Christianity officially declared so (but you won't say what or where or when).


Friend, NO ONE is telling ANYONE what they may or may not read in this regard. NO ONE is telling ANY publishing house what they may or may not put in tomes with "BIBLE" on the cover. Millions of books contain helpful information.... MILLIONS of them, there's no reason to believe ERGO they all must be Scripture and legally required to be in all Bibles.




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First off it WAS the body of early Christians who without a doubt gave us the OT Scripture which included Maccabees, no declaration was needed as you can find that they quote from the Apocrypha over 300 times and often even reiterating "for the scripture says" or "The Lord has spoken" before quoting the common Apocrypha set without any distinction from the rest of the OT scripture.

Secondly there are many players in "sweeping up the books from the pews", the real question is their motive.
Jerome had befriended unbelievers who if they hadn't have influenced Jerome YOU wouldn't have a dog for the fight, the controversy began when Jerome accepted a canon designed to suit unbelieving Jews and imposed it on the Church.

This broke the scriptural tradition for the OT, none of the books had ever caused a protest that they be removed for neither the Jews before Christ nor for the early Church.

Sooner or a later there came a man who struggled immensely with Scripture, even to the point of having complete psychotic meltdowns and delusional bouts with Satan and God until he finally mustard up the guts to stick it to the bully Catholic system that kept him oppressed for so long. Hey im not judging him at all, I had that exact torture including the psychosis until I picked up the good book and read it for what it's worth, yeah my Catholic upbringing was found to be nothing more than force fed lie one after the other.
There were times when I began reading something in the scripture that aroused my anger to where I would throw the book across the room and refuse to accept it... I imagine Luther got rather frustrated with the book of James since he concluded that it couldn't have been James the Apostle, im just glad protestants know how to harmonize James with Paul.. but then he had a beef with Revelation teaching that all judgment of men will be based on their works.. So when you compare his belief that James was not really James the Apostle with his belief that 1 Maccabees should be included in Holy Scripture but 2 Maccabees probably not (so lets the throw the baby out with the tub water) you can see how his opinions on what is and isn't scripture are purely HIS personal opinions as he points are very specific and aren't tethered to the opinions of the Jews solely.

Luther didn't due all too much concerning the "ripping away of books" as all including him still had them in their Bible, just now the books Jerome deemed as apocrypha were gathered and segregated into its own section..

Protestants settled in America, and built their churches and preached scripture in their churches, I believe it was originally the protestants who created the numbering system of chapters, passages and verses.
They aslo created quick reference marginal notes which the printing press appropriated, and indeed quick references to the Apocrypha section was no exception, they were using them IN church! Rifinus designated 3 groups, one is canon which is the Jewish canon, a second is Apocrypha which were the NT Apocrypha better known as the "Apocalyptic" books ie the "Apocalypse of Peter" they were strictly forbidden inside the churcnes... the third are the ecclesiastical books which are allowed to be read in the church just as long as its understood that they are outside the rule of basing any doctrines off of... these he mentions are the books of Maccabees, Tobit, Wisdom, etc....

So you see the protestants understood it was okay to read the ecclesiastical books such as 2 Maccabees in the church and preach from it.. it was not understood as "uninspired" to them, the canon just meant they were moat important since they contain doctrine!

The mam behind the curtain are the 19th century bible societies that wanted to cut down the costs of printing by ripping out the Apocrypha books, which they succeeded in doing by 1816.

So today you have to go to a Catholic book store if you want to purchase a Bible with the Apocrypha, but it's really the misunderstanding between "Apocrypha" and "Apocalyptic" that got everyone all tribal about it.

Josiah words change, anything "read" in church is inspired by God, all of the attendees who open of their hymnal are singing God inspired songs, they just aren't for doctrine, they are more so the observance of doctrine, in this manner the traditional inspired Scriptures ie Tobit, Maccabees etc ARE divine Scripture to be read in Churches but not for creating doctrine since there has been nothing new in the OT worthy of creating a new Christian doctrine out of! Do you recall when I asked what doctrines based on the OT has Christianity discovered and taught?
I got one answer, tithing, which didn't even evolve money donations in OT times.

As for what this all means today, the Catholic Bible saved my life because it's the only one my family had and I really really needed answers fast, im sure the scriptures the first Christians had laying around was very very special and divine and handed to them by God on a silver plater :)
 

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So how much does it cost in 2021 US$ for me to buy my dead brother out of hell like Maccabees did for his dead soldiers? Modern historical accounts are NOT the reason that Maccabees was never accepted as “divinely inspired” by the Church.
 

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So how much does it cost in 2021 US$ for me to buy my dead brother out of hell like Maccabees did for his dead soldiers? Modern historical accounts are NOT the reason that Maccabees was never accepted as “divinely inspired” by the Church.

Maccabees does not say that they paid money to atone for sins.

It says that they paid money TO PROVIDE for a sin offering.

The sin offering is mentioned in Leviticus 4.

In other words, the money paid to purchase the animals. The animal sacrifices atoned for their sins.

Don’t think that 2 Maccabees teaches that money atones for sin. That’s just how the corrupt Catholic Church misinterpreted it.
 

atpollard

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The sin offering is mentioned in Leviticus 4.
Not for the dead. I just want to pay a sin offering for those already dead like Maccabees teaches rather than have to face the fact that “it is appointed to man once to die and after this, judgement” like the REAL Bible teaches.
So Alexander the Great is just a little quaint side benefit.

Maccabees has issues with Maccabees. Those that later removed it from the binding did everyone a favor by acknowledging what every serious student already knew … useful and interesting, but not the infallible word of God. Never was and never will be.

However, read it if it makes you happy. Just don’t try and make it required reading in my children’s Sunday school by forcing it back into all the printed copies of the Holy Bible.
 

Andrew

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Not for the dead. I just want to pay a sin offering for those already dead like Maccabees teaches rather than have to face the fact that “it is appointed to man once to die and after this, judgement” like the REAL Bible teaches.
So Alexander the Great is just a little quaint side benefit.

Maccabees has issues with Maccabees. Those that later removed it from the binding did everyone a favor by acknowledging what every serious student already knew … useful and interesting, but not the infallible word of God. Never was and never will be.

However, read it if it makes you happy. Just don’t try and make it required reading in my children’s Sunday school by forcing it back into all the printed copies of the Holy Bible.
1. This is the old testament

2. It was a thoughtful and "pious" act but it never suggest that it did any of the men any good.
 

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If it did no one any good, how could it be considered either pious or thoughtful? You don't get judged by your intentions only by what you did. The sin offering reference in scripture was done by the offending party in the temple as a restitution for sin committed. It wasn't done for someone else. Here's an article going into detail as to what the sin offering is according to scripture...

 

Andrew

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If it did no one any good, how could it be considered either pious or thoughtful? You don't get judged by your intentions only by what you did. The sin offering reference in scripture was done by the offending party in the temple as a restitution for sin committed. It wasn't done for someone else. Here's an article going into detail as to what the sin offering is according to scripture...

Maccabees says that the act of atoning for the dead with a sin offering was a pious gesture in the hopes that the fallen men might obtain a better resurrection when the redeemer comes to raise the dead, the compassionate hope for a person who has passed is said to be pleasing in the eyes of God in Maccabees... It never states that its a sure deal or that it was tradition, only that it was a pious hope. Perhaps God granted them mercy and perhaps not. It's a rather insignificant verse that was totally taken out of context and magnified by the church to push a dogmatic tradition that completely ignores the Atonement through Christ Jesus.
Why take something that was not Jewish tradition but just a wishful thought by a man and turn that into a Christian tradition, superceding Christ all together?
 

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Not for the dead. I just want to pay a sin offering for those already dead like Maccabees teaches rather than have to face the fact that “it is appointed to man once to die and after this, judgement” like the REAL Bible teaches.
So Alexander the Great is just a little quaint side benefit.

Maccabees has issues with Maccabees. Those that later removed it from the binding did everyone a favor by acknowledging what every serious student already knew … useful and interesting, but not the infallible word of God. Never was and never will be.

However, read it if it makes you happy. Just don’t try and make it required reading in my children’s Sunday school by forcing it back into all the printed copies of the Holy Bible.

Ok, so let me get this straight. You’re saying that a sacrifice in the present was not able to atone for the sins of men who had died in the past?

Well, then. Just what do you think Jesus did on the cross?

As I understand it, Jesus paid for the sins of everyone who had died….past, present, and future.

And then, after Jesus atoned for the sins of everyone in the past, he went down into the lower parts of the Earth and preached the gospel to those spirits in prison who were disobedient in the days of Noah.

Well, “gospel” means “good news.”
Why preach the good news to people if there’s no possible way of saving them?

If you’re saying that a sacrifice in the present cannot atone for the sins of men who died in the past, then you’ve just denied the gospel! Oops!

But there’s no sense in anyone today sending money to the church, expecting them to use it to buy an animal and sacrifice it for your dead relatives. Why? Because animal sacrifice is over. Jesus atoned for everyone once and for all.

But in the days of the Maccabees, Jesus’ sacrifice had not happened yet. They still had animal sacrifices back then.

So what is 2 Maccabees getting wrong? Is it wrong because it’s saying an animal sacrifice can atone for sin? Leviticus says that!
Is it wrong because it’s saying a sacrifice in the present can atone for sins of people who died in the past? Jesus did that!

When you really look at what 2 Maccabees is actually saying, it’s compatible with the Old and New Testament.

Don’t judge a book based upon the false interpretations of the Catholic Church.
 

NathanH83

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If it did no one any good, how could it be considered either pious or thoughtful? You don't get judged by your intentions only by what you did. The sin offering reference in scripture was done by the offending party in the temple as a restitution for sin committed. It wasn't done for someone else. Here's an article going into detail as to what the sin offering is according to scripture...


You say “it wasn’t done for someone else.”

Really? Let’s see if scripture supports that…

“So it was, when the days of feasting had run their course, that Job would send and sanctify them, and he would rise early in the morning and offer burnt offerings according to the number of them all. For Job said, “It may be that my sons have sinned and cursed God in their hearts.” Thus Job did regularly.”
-Job 1:5

Oh, look at that. Job offered sacrifices…..FOR SOMEONE ELSE.

You know, if you’re going to say that 2 Maccabees is unbiblical, first make sure that you actually know your Bible.
 
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