Why is it such a crime to want to use the Bible used by the early church?
1. First, you'd need to show that every Christian from 33AD to 313 AD regarded every one of the books YOU use as the inerrant, canonical, inscripturated words of God - as their BIBLE. Every book you use. Every Christian for those nearly300 years. In that way. Good luck.
2. Today, Christians read MILLIONS of books.... and use MILLIONS of books. It is quite common for preachers to quote from books, newspapers, magazines, websites, even books containing sermon illustrations and stories. This has ALWAYS been the case. So, according to you, if you can find 4 pastors quoting from Left Behind, this proves that series and the movies must be accepted by every Christian as the inerrant, canonical, insceripturated words of God. I just find that an amazing, incredible assumption on your part.... one you obviously haven't thought through;
3. Okay, so your rubric is if Christians read or use or quote from a book, ERGO it is the inerrant, canonical, inscripturated words of God and Scripture. Well, the ECF read and used and quoted from lots of books. These include The
Epistle of Barnabas (which some of the Fathers specifically call "Scripture"), the
Shepherd of Hermas (ditto, some specifally label this book as "SCRIPTURE") the
Didache (used MORE than several books in your Bible tome), the
Gospel of Matthew (quoted directly by several ECF). They also reference BY NAME the following: "The Gospel of Peter" "The Gospel of Thomas" "Acts of Andrew" Yes, there's some evidence they occasionally also noted one of the 4 Maccabee books but less so than these. So, why accept one or more of the Maccabee books but not all these? Is it simply whether the book can be dated to before or after 1 AD (if only BEFOFE, then you must reject all the NT). If we should "use" the ssme books early Christians did, then why aren't you arguing for the Gospel of Matthew and the Protoevangelium of James and the Didache? They were used by early Christians...
I said that Hebrews 11:34 references the story of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abed-Nego without actually mentioning the book of Daniel
1. Perhaps you are unaware that the Book of Daniel is a different book than is First and/or Second and/or Third and/or Fourth Maccabees.
2. Hebrews 11:34 never even so much as mentions the Book of Daniel, much less specifically reference that book. The word "Daniel" doesn't even appear in the entirely of the Book of Hebrews.... as a person or as a book. That Book (which isn't any of the books with Maccabees in its moniker) isn't referenced, the word doens't even appear in any way or form. No, the book is not referenced.
3. Friend, it is IMPOSSIBLE to give a book reference without so much as even mentioning a single word from the book title. Impossible. And simply noting the same information in no way whatsoever is a book reference or indicates that the information came exclusively (or at all) from that book;. Again, you read in your 10th Grade history book that Pearl Harbor was attacked by the Japanese. And your son reads in his 10th grade History book the same thing. Does that mandate (or even suggest) the second book MUST have learned about that from your 10th grade history book? Come on.... your whole apologetic is beyond incredible.
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