[MENTION=43]psalms 91[/MENTION]
If I accept your logic then are you saying that as husband and wife they cheated? That seems to be the conclusion you infer
I'm not sure who you are addressing, but if it is me...
I'm not "inferring"
ANYTHING. I'm just noting the OBVIOUS: There is NOTHING in the Bible (including the verses MennoSota quotes) that states Mary had other children. It's true, in the past 300 years or so, there has arisen among a small number of Christians that speculation but there is NOTHING in the Bible that so states. MennoSota is obviously wrong when he dogmatically states otherwise (and IRONICALLY, he keeps verbatim proving himself wrong). The dogmatic declaration of MennoSota (and some other modern "Evangelicals") is "the Bible states that Mary had other children." This is simply a factual falsehood. Why MennoSota feels compelled to prove that, I don't know (he does this with many of his new inventions).
Not only does NOT the Bible EVER state that Mary had other children (if it did, surely MennoSota would quote it and at least ONE Christian in 1700 years would have noticed it)... but there's NOTHING from anywhere else, either. In the First Century - when some Apostles were still alive, when Mary was still alive, when many who knew Mary and Jesus were still alive - it was held that Mary had no other children, NO ONE is recorded as believing otherwise. The speculation that she had other children did not arise until the 18th Century. So, there is no Tradition, no history - as well as no Scripture - to support the speculation that She had other children. Nothing. It's just the reality.
Now, the verse MennoSota quotes, might INFER (but not state, as claimed) something IF - IF - IF (big word there!)
IF the words for "brother" and sister" meant "Share the same mother, came from the same womb." But as everyone knows, they do not. The verse he quotes states that Joseph is His father (NOTE: Jesus is not biologically related to Joseph AT ALL!!! "Father" here does NOT mean "biological", the word has NOTHING to do with biology here). And it says that Mary is His mother. NOWHERE does it say that Joseph and James are from the womb of Mary. It doesn't say it. And to DOGMATICALLY INSIST that it does state that is.... how to be nice about this.... well, you know. No, it is NOT a case that for over 1700 years, not one Christian never noticed that the verse says "Mary was the birth mother of Joseph and James as well as Jesus".... no.... it's a case of the verse not saying that. Reality matters.
In reality, the words "brother"and "sister" were VERY broad terms (as sometimes "father" - as here in this verse, Joseph had NOTHING WHATSOEVER to do with Jesus' birth, NONE of His DNA came from Joseph, yet he is called Jesus' "father") - and mother. See 1 Corinthians 15:6 for just one obvious example, no, St. Paul's mother did not bore over 500 boys. CHANGING the meaning of "brother" and "sister" to mean "Came from the womb of the same mother" is absurd and biblically impossible. We can't made new dogma by changing the known meaning of words. In reality, the word "brother" and "sister" USUALLY does not mean "from womb of the same mother" in koine Greek.
There's a couple of other things to consider: When Jesus is at the Temple at the age of 12, no siblings are mentioned. And when Jesus dies, He entrusts the care of His mother to whom? NEVER was a mother EVER - EVER - entrusted to anyone except the next closest male relative (if living); Jesus would have entrusted Mary to any other son of Mary (if living) - it would have been unheard of and an ENORMOUS disrespect and unimaginable "slam" to Joseph and James if they were sons of Mary to entrust Her to John (probably related to Mary, but MUCH more distantly than to a living son). Does ANY of this PROVE that Mary did not have other children. Absolutely not!! But it adds to the problems for this newly invented dogma of Mary having other children. As well as the reality that no one in the First Century thought She did.... no one until the 18th Century thought she did.... the Bible never says She did.
Now, Bill, I am NOT saying (especially dogmatically) that she did NOT have other children. The Bible is SILENT on that, therefore so am I. And BTW, so is every denomination (there is no dogma of "Mary had No Other Kids" OR "Mary Had Other Kids"). I don't know. Frankly, I don't care (another reason to not be dogmatic, insistent). BUT I DO note that no one ever thought she did until the 18th Century.... I'm NOT arguing She had other kids - I don't know. I'm saying we should not dogmatically state that She did, we should not make dogma here in the 21st Century out of pure speculation (and for reasons no one seems to know).
MennoSota (and others) invent a new dogma that Mary Had Other Children. Okay.... the "ball" is in their court to prove this true. "It kinda, sorta seems like it's probable cuz well usually married people have more than one kid and it's not wrong to have more than one kid" is not the confirmation of a new dogma. Perhaps you disagree, Bill. And the PERSISTENT, dogmatic statement, "The Bible states she had gobs more kids" is... well..... I want to be nice, but you know.
If I accept your logic then are you saying that as husband and wife they cheated? That seems to be the conclusion you infer
Again, Bill, I don't "infer" ANYTHING. And what I'm saying is what I said (just use the quote feature).
I don't know what "logic" you are referring to. But I don't accept that it's LOGICAL that if a wife doesn't have at least two children, then there is spousal "cheating" going on. I never said that and I don't hold that that is "logical."
Perhaps you are referring to a view I shared (but didn't state agreement with), the view since at least 90 AD, that Joseph was previously married and widowed, and that there were children from that marriage which he took with him into his new marriage with Mary? This was a very common opinion.... we find it for example in the Protoevangelium of James. No, it doesn't hold that it's "cheating" to have had children by a previous marriage ended by the death of one of the spouses. One spouse dying is not spousal cheating; nor is it spousal cheating for a widow or widower to remarry. Now, did I claim this to be true? No. Did I claim it as dogma? No. Did I claim it is stated in the Bible? No. I said this was a VERY early view of the matter. I never "inferred" anyone "cheating" on anyone.
I hope this helps, my friend!
- Josiah
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