[MENTION=394]MennoSota[/MENTION] [MENTION=334]atpollard[/MENTION]
Some points.... if I may....
1. John the Baptist was of the OLD COVENANT. The least Christian is thus greater than he. And what he was doing was one of the 3 popular Jewish rites of baptism, the Bible itself states that when it calls what this Jewish Prophet was doing as, "The baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins." I disagree that exactly what was done there is NORMATIVE for Christians (at all); if it was, then we'd need to circumcize all boys when they are one week old because that's what was done for Jesus in the Jewish milieu in which He grew up. We'd have to celebrate the Passover. We'd have to offer two birds in the Temple 40 days after the birth of our first born son. And a LONG LIST of other things. Just because the JEWS under the OLD COVEANT did some stuff.... and Jesus (and His parents) still lived under that Law (before Good Friday/Easter) does not provide a NORM for us. A very wrong epistemology.
2. I think there is a FUNDAMENTAL and FOUNDATIONAL premise in all these "what was done and not done in the Bible" arguments. This whole point: We can do only what is exampled in books between Genesis and Revelation as having been done, and are forbidden to do otherwise. That ASSUMPTION , that premise, is being IMPOSED. Oddly, no one accepts this as true (they could not be posting on the internet if they did) AND YET seem to impose it and make this point foundational (if unstated) in their points. Okay. Jesus likely celebrated something of a proto bar mitzah at the age of 12.... how does that reality MANDATE all now must do the same, also at 12? Yes, Jesus publicly worship on Saturday morning (after family worship on what to to us is Friday night) does that mandate all today must do the same? Because there is NOT ONE EXAMPLE in the Bible of a gentile ever administering Baptism, must we mandate that only Hebrews can do that? Because we have NOT ONE example of a woman receiving Communion in the Bible, must we dogmatically forbid women from Communion? It seems we have no examples of Christian pastors who were not at least half Hebrew, does that mean it is forbidden to have a pastor who is not at least half Hebrew by race? The rubic is simply false. EVERYONE accepts that it's false....but it is foundational and fundamental to their entire apologetic, an assumption THEY THEMSELVES REJECT imposed upon the issue.
To the point of the thread:
1. The opening poster made a very bold claim. Then it was proven (by a Baptist, in fact) that the claim is false - officially false. And he had the humility and honesty to admit his error (he get's points from me for that, lol). We're actually done with this thread. And have been for quite a while.
2. It is OBVIOUS and UNDENIABLE that no Anabaptist/Baptist can find even one verse that teaches an AGE requirement or prohibition. The Anti (against) Paedo (child under 13 or 20 generally) Baptism Dogma invented by the Anabaptists simply and undeniably is not taught in the Bible. Yes, SOME of the examples of baptism that happen to be recorded in the Bible are of people at least old enough to talk but that's not normative.
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