Josiah said:
Here's how that defense goes:
1. We MUST do whatever is illustrated as done in the Bible.
2. We are FORBIDDEN to do whatever is not illustrated in the Bible.
3. Every baptism in the Bible is of one over the age of X, who first documented that Jesus died for THEM, who then proved that they had chosen Jesus as their personal Savior, then after that was fully immersed under water.
4. ERGO we are mandated do the same (in the same chronological order) and are forbidden to do otherwise.
THAT is their apologetic for the Credobaptism dogma the Anabaptists invented in the late 16th Century. Our two baptists friends here pretty much echo that.
There are two chief and obvious problems:
1. It's not true. NONE of point # 3 can actually be shown to be the case. As 1 Corinthians 1:16, Acts 16:15, and Acts 16:33 undeniably prove. So they just ignore them.
2. The apologetic is built entirely a point they themselves hold as false. The entire rationale, the whole apologetic is one they themselves reject. Points 1 and 2 are not accepted or followed by ANY of them, including our two Baptists friends here. Since they themselves repudiate and disavow and don't follow the rubric of points 1 and 2, it's absurd and laughable to argue something is true if it conforms to what is false.
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"Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” [Act 2:38] is a Credobaptist teaching.
Mine, too. Everyone agrees with that. I've accepted every single literal word in every single Scripture you and MennoSota have quoted or referenced - fully and completely.
But of course, the verse you quote has nothing to do with the Anabaptist invention of Credobaptism. It's a nice verse we all agree on (and thus a good diversion) but it does not state, "FIRST in chronological time, one must prove they are among the unnamed few for whom Jesus died, then after that in time must give public proof that they have chosen Jesus as their personal Savior, then after that has all been done, then one is to repent, and after that (and only then) is the prohibition to baptize is lifted and the person may receive baptism (but only if by full and complete immersion under water). It doesn't say that, does it? It doesn't substantiate this Anabaptist invention of Credobaptism. It has nothing to do with it.
atpolard said:
"Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation. He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved; but he who has disbelieved shall be condemned.” [Mar 16:15-16]
Again, I agree.
Again, it has nothing to do with the Anabaptist invention of the Anabaptists that you echo and defend. Nice verse, attempted diversion to something we agree on, but nothing to do with the Anabaptist dogma you echo. Obviously, the verse does not state, "FIRST in chronological time, one must prove they are among the unnamed few for whom Jesus died, then after that in time must give public proof that they have chosen Jesus as their personal Savior, then after that has all been done, then (and only then) is the prohibition to baptize is lifted and the person may receive baptism (but only if by full and complete immersion under water).
atpollard said:
I agree. Everyone does. And perhaps you didn't notice, it doesn't even mention Baptism....nor is that the context.
Again, this has nothing whatsoever to do with the Anabaptist dogma of Credobaptism you echo. Nice verse, I fully agree with it, but it has nothing whatsoever to do with your dogma. So it's just a diversion. Obviously, as everyone including you knows, it does not state, "FIRST in chronological time, one must prove they are among the unnamed few for whom Jesus died, then after that in time must give public proof that they have chosen Jesus as their personal Savior, then after that has all been done, then (and only then) is the prohibition to baptize is lifted and the person may receive baptism (but only if by full and complete immersion under water)."
atpollard said:
This is not a Credobaptist rule, however, scripture does say ... "Whoever then annuls one of the least of these commandments, and teaches others [to do] the same, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches [them,] he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.” [Mat 5:19] ... so we prefer to do what the Bible says to do when given the choice.
So, where does the Bible state, "FIRST in chronological time, one must prove they are among the unnamed few for whom Jesus died, then after that in time must give public proof that they have chosen Jesus as their personal Savior, then after that has all been done, then (and only then) is the prohibition to baptize is lifted and the person may receive baptism (but only if by full and complete immersion under water)?" Did these radically synergistic Anabaptists in the late 16th Century invent a commandment and demand all keep it, making them least in the kngdom of God, and now you continue this?
atpollard said:
These are people who have “heard - believed - repented” and want to be baptized.
Ah, but it doesn't state, "FIRST in chronological time all must hear and cognatively fully understand, then after that is accomplished, then after that they must prove they have chosen Jesus as their personal Savior, then after that is done, repent, and when all that is accomplished, then the prohibition to baptize is lifted and they may be baptized (but only if every cell of their body is entirely covered and immersed in water." The verse is great but obviously it doesn't say what you do. Not at all.
Prove for us that that precise chronological sequence happened for every person in the households below that were baptized:
Acts 16:15
Acts 16:33
1 Corinthians 1:16
atpollard said:
βαπτίζω baptízō, bap-tid'-zo; to immerse, submerge; to make whelmed (i.e. fully wet)
Since the late 16th Century when the Anabaptists invented the dogma you parrot, some Baptists try to make the case that the very word "baptize" means and mandated "full immersion under water." It simply isn't true.
And it doesn't even require you know Greek to realize this. In Greece, where they have been speaking Greek since before Baptism was instituted, they have never baptized by full immersion. If the Greek word itself mandated full immersion, don't you think the Greeks would know this? Don't you think ANYONE - anyone at all, even one person - -prior to these Anabaptists (none of whom knew Greek or spoke Greek) would have known the word itself mandates full immersion?
If the word means and mandates full immersion under water, how come no one in the Greek speaking Greek Orthodox Church for 2000 years knows that? Now, it's true, the EOC typically dip the BABY but there is no full immersion under water. Never has been. Not by anyone who knows and speaks Greek. Not in 2000 years. Why haven't the Greek speaking Greeks EVER known the word mandates immersion? BUT these German Anabaptists in the late 16th Century knew this? Can you explain why no Greek speaking person has ever known that the word means and mandates full immersion?
The Didache,
as you've admitted, written around 100 AD in Greek by an author who know and spoke Greek to readers who knew Greek, states that we can baptize by
pouring. He specifically states it's okay to
POUR in Baptism. Why didn't he know that that's forbidden by the word itself? Why didn't anyone know that until some German (who didn't know Greek) discovered that 1500 years later? Will you explain that?
Your insistence that the word "baptize" means and mandates full immersion, that Didache states,"
POUR out water ..."
POUR. He quotes a Scripture about baptism and states we are permitted to
POUR. It's okay to
POUR. He doesn't say, "Because we all know the very word means and mandates to fully immerse entirely under water we cannot pour water or dip in water but it is mandated we fully immerse the body under water". Nope. He says we can
POUR. He spoke Greek. He knew Greek. The readers he writes to know Greek and speak Greek. He wrote this just decades after Jesus instituted Baptism. He wrote it to people who spoke and read and knew Greek. How do you explain he doesn't know that the word means and MANDATES the exclusive mode of fully immersion, but some German Anabaptists, 1500 years later, who didn't know or speak Greek, suddenly, after no one else on the planet knew this for 1500 years, these German speakers suddenly know the meaning of the word? Can you explain that?
Consider too Mark 10:38-39, Luke 12:50, Matthew 3:11, Mark 1:8, Romans 6:3-4, Ezekiel 36:25-27 (OTequal) and many more; obviously the term does not mean "to fully immerse in and under water." Surely Mark and Luke and Matthew knew the meaning of the word (probably better than the German speaking Anabaptists in the late 16th Century). Can you explain to me Matthew and Mark and Paul (all of whom knew Greek and spoke Greek and lived in the First Century) didn't know that the very word MEANS and MANDATES full immersion under water? But there was German speaking (non-Greek speaking) German almost 1600 years later who suddenly revealed this? Will you explain that?
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