atpollard said:
I have some spare time, so I will meet you part way and answer ONE of your questions (with scripture as requested) then wait for you to respond to mine
While some Baptists try to make this case, it simply isn't true. And it doesn't even require you know Greek to realize this. In Greece, where they have been speaking Greek since before Baptism was instituted, they have never baptized by full immersion. If the Greek word itself mandated full immersion, don't you think the Greeks would know this? Don't you think ANYONE - anyone at all, even one person - -prior to these wackedoddle Anabaptists (none of whom knew Greek or spoke Greek) would have known the word itself mandates full immersion? Now, it's true, the EOC
typically dip the BABY but there is no full immersion. Never has been. Not by anyone who knows and speaks Greek. Not in 2000 years.
The Didache, written around 100 AD in Greek by an author who know and spoke Greek, states that we can baptize by pouring. Now, why doesn't he know that the word MANDATES the exclusive mode of fully immersion, but some German Anabaptists, 1500 years later, who didn't know or speak Greek, suddenly, after no one else knew this for 1500 years, they suddenly know the meaning of the word? Consider too Mark 10:38-39, Luke 12:50, Matthew 3:11, Mark 1:8, Romans 6:3-4, Ezekiel 36:25-27 (OT equal) and many more; obviously the term does not mean "to fully immerse in and under water." Surely Mark and Luke and Matthew knew the meaning of the word (probably better than the German speaking Anabaptists in the late 16th Century).
atpollard said:
NOW IT IS MY TURN Act 18 :8 NASB 8 Crispus, the leader of the synagogue, believed in the Lord with all his household, and many of the Corinthians when they heard were believing and being baptized. So Crispus believed and was baptized. Do Lutheran infants believe?
God is able to give them faith. Jesus said so and I believe Him. See Matthew 18:6, etc., etc. Note the word "mikron" literally means "tiny ones" and is used in Greek to refer to unborn children through toddlers. The word does not mean "one over the age of X." Of course, God gave faith to John the Baptists while he was still in his mother's womb. God can do that. Lutherans hold to a big and capable and soverign God, not to the limitations of those radically synergistic Anabaptists in the late 16th Century.
But of course, this verse doesn't say that we are forbidden to baptize under the nondisclosed age of X, or that we are forbidden to baptize any unless they first prove that they have chosen Jesus as their personal Savior or that we are forbidden to baptize any unless they first prove they are among the unnamed few for whom Jesus died.
atpollard said:
Do all the members of Lutheran households believe?
We don't believe that we must ASSUME anything..... that all members of all households are over the never-disclosed age of X, that all members of all households have proven that they have chosen Jesus as their personal Savior, that all members of all households have proven that they are among the unnamed few for whom Jesus died. We don't assume that (dogmatically or otherwise). In fact, I know it to be false. In my household, we have a one-year-old, and I suspect (but cannot know) that he is under the never-disclosed age of X.
atpollard said:
Have Lutheran infants BELIEVED and gotten Baptized?
Remember: the koine Greek word "and" is the most general connective word there is. "Kai" does not mandate chronological sequence than the word "and" does in English. I got up this morning and went to the bathroom and made a pot of coffee. Absolutely true, but I didn't do them in that chronological order. It would be silly to invent a dogma that we are forbidden to make coffee before we go to the bathroom based on that sentence
Oh and my son heard long before he was born, just for your knowledge. Babies in the womb can hear. He went to church with us. We sang "Jesus songs" to him. God gave faith to John the Baptist before he was born.... I reject that God is too weak, too limited, too inept to give faith to whom He chooses; Lutherans accept the sovereignty of God and reject inventions that deny that.
Yes, the Credobaptism dogma was invented by these radically synergistic Anabaptists NOT because they quoted any Scripture but because their foundational belief was that each must CHOOSE Jesus as their personal Savior and this creates faith in themselves; each must DO big things before God can do anything for them; so you echo their doctrine: "Babies can't....." Monergists look at this differently, "God can..."
Now, where are these prohibitions, denials and mandates that are the dogma you echo stated in Scripture?
"Thou canst NOT baptize any unless and until they hath reached their Xth birthday (and you won't be told what birthday that is)?"
"Thou canst NOT baptize any unless and until they hath proven they hath chosen Jesus as their personal Savior?"
"Thou canst NOT baptize any unless and until they hath proven they are among the unnamed few for whom Jesus died?"
atpollard said:
What the Didache says:
Chapter 7. Concerning Baptism
And concerning baptism, baptize this way: Having first said all these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, Matthew 28:19 in living water. But if you have not living water, baptize into other water; and if you can not in cold, in warm. But if you have not either, pour out water thrice upon the head into the name of Father and Son and Holy Spirit. But before the baptism let the baptizer fast, and the baptized, and whatever others can; but you shall order the baptized to fast one or two days before
I'm addressing your apologetic that the word "baptize" in GREEK means and mandates full immersion in water... and that's your defense of the Anabaptist invention of "immersion ONLY."
Yes. The Didache was written IN GREEK about 100 AD. By one who knew and spoke and wrote in GREEK... within a century of the NT. And obviously, the author didn't know that word "baptize" in Greek mandates to IMMERSE entirely under water as the Anabaptists claim to have discovered. It seems no one who knew Greek, who spoke Greek, who wrote in Greek knew what these German speaking Anabaptists 1500 years later suddenly discovered: that the word MEANS and MANDATES full immersion under water. The Greek speaking members of the Greek Orthodox Church STILL don't know that's what the word means; but these tiny number of German speaking Anabaptist - who didn't speak Greek, didn't know Greek, dogmatically KNEW it. Can you explain?
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