Since there’s evidence that 1 Maccabees was probably written in Hebrew originally…

[Andrew]

Then we should avoid the terms “verbatim” and “word for word” wherever they are inappropriate, and stick to making TRUE statements about scripture.

Not all Gospel accounts of the words of Jesus are “verbatim”.

True, but the closest to the letter is typically from the Greek Hebrew source, it's actually the recieved OT source for Jesus and the Apostles. I'm telling you, Rabbanic Judaism altered the prophecies, it's obviously when you compare scripture.

 

[atpollard]

True, but the closest to the letter is typically from the Greek Hebrew source, it's actually the recieved OT source for Jesus and the Apostles. I'm telling you, Rabbanic Judaism altered the prophecies, it's obviously when you compare scripture.
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Are you really striving to demonstrate that the Greek in the NT is closer to being word for word to the Greek OT than to the Hebrew OT?

Isn’t that to be expected since both are in “Greek”. I bet comparing the KJV with the ESV will show them to be closer to “word for word” than comparing them to a Spanish translation like the RVR60.

Just for the sake of argument, if we assume that the LXX OT is closer to the NT quotation than the MT OT … then my question is: So what?

• How does this information help me to know Christ as Lord and savior?
• What does this have to do with Maccabees?