If the prophecies in Daniel 8 cannot be understood without Maccabees, then doesn’t that prove Maccabees belongs in the Bible?

NathanH83

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Where did I post that? What does that have to do with the claim that the BOOK of First Maccabees (among millions of other books) fulfills a prophecy? Or that therefore, First Maccabees is inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God?

Ezra was affirmed by some prophet? Who? Where? What does that have to do with anything?





In what?




Ezra is the name of a prophet.... and the name of a canonical book.... I have no clue what his being a High Priest has to do with anything (frankly, I didn't know he was).





Okay.... we don't know that he wrote anything. Nor is there any reason to affirm that everything written by a high priest ERGO must be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God.






Where did I do that?





What claim did I make that is "baseless."


But what about the claim that "ALL Christians affirmed certain unidentified books as Scripture until some unidentified person ripped out an unstated number of books from all pew Bibles."
What about the claim "Christianity decreed that certain unidentified books are fully canonical."
What about the claim, "Judaism decreed that certain unidentifed books are fully canonical."
What about the claim, "If a book contains accurate history, it is inerrant divinely-inscripturated words of God"
What about the claim, "All Christians until the 16th Century thought that certain unidentified books were Scripture."
What about the claim, "The Book of First Maccabees is the fulfillment of a prophecy in Daniel 8 (sometimes Daniel 11)"
What about the claim, "Luther said that First Maccabees is fully canonical Scripture"
What about the claim, "Christians don't read books unless they are in a tome called "Bible."
Etc.
Etc.
Etc.



.

I don’t even understand what you’re asking. It sounds to me that by your logic, no Christian can have any confidence that any book belongs in the Bible. You cast doubt on the Word of God. Are you even a Christian? Do you have any faith in God’s Word? Because you seem to be doubting that anyone can have faith in any book of the Bible for any reason.

If an early church council declared a book to be scripture, by your logic, that’s not good enough.

If a book contains significant and necessary history to understand prophecies in Daniel, that’s not good enough.

If a book is referenced in the New Testament, that’s not good enough.

Ok, so what is good enough? How can we know anything belongs in the Bible?

Ruth is referenced in Matthew 1. Is that not good enough to know that Ruth belongs? If someone publishes a Bible that was missing the book of Ruth, should I just be OK with that?

I mean, seriously, how can anyone, by your logic, have any faith in God’s Word at all?

You seriously sound like an atheist, or some kind of backslidden Christian who doesn’t know if he can trust God’s Word.
 

Origen

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Ezra is the name of a prophet.... and the name of a canonical book.... I have no clue what his being a High Priest has to do with anything (frankly, I didn't know he was).
The reason for that is Ezra is ONLY referenced as High Priest in 1 Esdras 9: 40, 49. In the books of Ezra and Nehemiah he is Ezra the priest and\or scribe. He is never called the Hight Priest. That bit of information was conveniently left out of the conversation.
 
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Josiah

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If an early church council declared a book to be scripture

It did not. Yes, as you've noted, there are 4,5 maybe as many as 10 individual Christians that between 33 and 311 AD stated their individual OPINIONS on the subject, but even 10 individuals giving their OPINION is not "The Early Church."



If a book contains significant and necessary history to understand prophecies in Daniel

There are MILLIONS of books that relate significant history... often helping us understand things concerning the Bible and the middle east from 1500 BC to 100 AD. That does NOT mean that THEREFORE all of them are the inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God. Your premise is silly... obviously something you've never thought about.



If a book is referenced in the New Testament.

None of the Deuterocanonical books are. True, some EVENTS or PERSONS that are found in those books are referenced (well, one) but that has nothing whatsoever to do with that book THEREFORE being The inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God.


Just the PERPETUAL chain of baseless, thoughtless, CLAIMS..... over and over and over.... evidently your whole apologetic is "If I repeated a claim often enough... and make it absurd enough... therefore it must be true." You like to play the "connect the dots" GAME but you invent the ghost "dots" with ZERO concern with whether it's true... then appoint yourself to infallibly connect these false "dots" with a circular and absurd "logic". And when reality is brought up to you... when you are even asked a question.... to switch to the "shell game" of ignore that and change the subject.



See post 59.... again, once again, still another time ... EVERYTHING posted to you is just evaded, dodged, ignored, not answered, not addressed.



.

 
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NathanH83

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Ezra is the name of a prophet.... and the name of a canonical book.... I have no clue what his being a High Priest has to do with anything (frankly, I didn't know he was).



.

You think Ezra was a prophet?
Ok then. What did Ezra prophesy?

You made a mistake. Look into it. Church leaders do not claim that Ezra was a prophet. Just a high priest and scribe.

Unless, of course, you want to accept the Apocryphal book of 4 Esdras. THEN we could say Ezra was a prophet. But if you reject that book, then why are you calling Ezra a prophet?
 

NathanH83

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The reason for that is Ezra is ONLY referenced as High Priest in 1 Esdras 9: 40, 49. In the books of Ezra and Nehemiah he is Ezra the priest and\or scribe. He is never called the Hight Priest. That bit of information was conveniently left out of the conversation.

That makes your case even worse.
Ezra wasn’t a prophet. And he wasn’t even high priest. He was just a regular priest.

So how is Ezra the Word of God? I thought it has to be prophecy to be the Word of God?

Some, such as atpollard, have said that prophets confirmed Ezra to be the Word of God.

Oh, really? What prophet affirmed Ezra to be the Word of God? Which prophet? Malachi? Zechariah? Haggai? Who? Where is it written?

Is Ezra quoted in the New Testament? No.
Is Ezra referenced in the New Testament? No.

So why haven’t you ripped Ezra out of your Bible yet?

Good grief.

Ezra IS the Word of God, and NOT because he’s a prophet, and NOT because a prophet affirmed his works. But simply because he’s a priest appointed by God. Whether he was a high priest at some point, or just remained a regular priest. Ezra is part of the Bible. Do you disagree?

Well, Simon Maccabees was high priest. The books of Maccabees are not disqualified because of a lack of prophets. Why? Because they had priests.

Something very important and significant happened in Maccabees. So significant in fact that God had Daniel prophesy about it, and had John the beloved mention the holiday in his gospel.

So Christians SHOULD read about it.

The fact that so many Christians today are completely ignorant about it is a TRAVESTY!
 

NathanH83

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Wrong! I made no case.

Aren’t you arguing against the Apocrypha belonging in the Bible?
If not, then why are you arguing against it?

For the people arguing that Maccabees can’t be scripture because there were no prophets, then they’ll have to explain how Ezra is scripture.
 

Josiah

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Church leaders do not claim that Ezra was a prophet. Just a high priest and scribe.

Okay. And that has NOTHING.... absolutely nothing whatsoever... to do with the issue of this thread (or perhaps anything else for that matter). READ POST 59 and 63. All you (constantly!) do is evade, dodge, ignore, change the subject to yet another irrelevant baseless claim.



.



 

NathanH83

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Okay. And that has NOTHING.... absolutely nothing whatsoever... to do with the issue of this thread (or perhaps anything else for that matter). READ POST 59 and 63. All you (constantly!) do is evade, dodge, ignore, change the subject to yet another irrelevant baseless claim.



.

But doesn’t Ezra have to be prophecy in order to be scripture? They say Maccabees can’t be scripture because there were no prophets at that time.

Also, since we have 3 church councils in the 4th century claiming Maccabees is scripture, aren’t you at least curious if maybe Maccabees might be scripture?

I mean, I get the points you’ve made about them being local, western, and latin.
But, if these church fathers in the early church thought that they’re scripture, then aren’t you interested in finding out if they’re right? What if they’re right?

The fact that you seem to not even be interested in knowing if they were right makes it seem to me that you have a very low and irreverent view of the Bible. Don’t you care to find out?
 

Andrew

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Andrew,

Nathan chose to prove your comment wrong. Luther never said that the book of First Maccabees fulfills the prophecy of Daniel. Nope. Not true. He ONLY said that the content helps us understand Daniel. Apples and oranges. And of course that does nothing to show that Luther accepted the book of First Maccabees as inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God.

This is what Luther said about the Deuterocanoncial books he included in his German translation of the Bible (one more than the modern RCC does): “These books are not held equal to the Scriptures, but are useful and good to read.”




.
The Bible is record of events so in all fairness according to you no book fulfills prophecy, only the events do, and Luther had certain beliefs of some NT books that you would disagree with him on but because your 500 year old church tells you which books belong and which don't -I find that to be your strongest argument.. Luther got these books from tradition down to the very fathers themselves which spoke of these books as Holy Scripture in their letters.
Again you have Canon and you have Ecclesiastical books, both are considered Sacred and Holy Scriptures, both were included in the Holy Bible, the division was no division at all. Read the early church fathers if you dont believe me, they even quote from the "apocrypha" or second canon as words from the very mouth of Jesus The LORD Himself. Now where would they get that idea?
 

Origen

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Aren’t you arguing against the Apocrypha belonging in the Bible?
If not, then why are you arguing against it?
I am not arguing for it or against it. I provide helpful information in order to correct misinformation and for those who make not be aware of the facts.
 
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NathanH83

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Andrew,

Nathan chose to prove your comment wrong. Luther never said that the book of First Maccabees fulfills the prophecy of Daniel. Nope. Not true. He ONLY said that the content helps us understand Daniel. Apples and oranges. And of course that does nothing to show that Luther accepted the book of First Maccabees as inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God.

This is what Luther said about the Deuterocanoncial books he included in his German translation of the Bible (one more than the modern RCC does): “These books are not held equal to the Scriptures, but are useful and good to read.”




.

Dude, what in the world are you even talking about? I didn’t choose to prove Andrew wrong. Huh???

And what do you mean apples and oranges? Huh? What?

The book of 1 Maccabees contains the history that Daniel 7, 8 and 11 prophesy about. Yes, Luther said it’s helpful for understanding the prophecies in Daniel 11. Why did Luther say that? BECAUSE IT’S HELPFUL! Knowing this history IS helpful for understanding these prophecies. What in the world are you talking about????

What do you mean it doesn’t fulfill the prophecies in Daniel? Huh? Yea it does. It clearly does. Huh?????

And what do you mean Luther didn’t accept 1 Maccabees as scripture? Luther specifically said that he counts 1 Maccabees to be worthy to be placed among the books of sacred scripture. He literally said that. READ HIS QUOTE. He only wanted 2 Maccabees removed because he thought it taught false doctrine (because the Catholic Church was misinterpreting it).

However, Luther didn’t get his way. He wanted to include some of the Apocryphal books, and not others. But instead they were all taken out. It wasn’t entirely his choice. If it was entirely up to him, he would have included 1 Maccabees and excluded 2 Maccabees. But it was other Protestant leaders who ultimately made that decision to remove them all.

You see, this is one of the reasons you need to listen to David Bercot’s teaching on this topic. Because you end up making claims that don’t make sense.

It’s like you’re just obstinately refusing to understand. Like a child that knows better, but wants to pretend like he doesn’t get it.

And also, don’t you want to know whether these books of Maccabees belong in the Bible or not? Aren’t you at least interested to find out if they do or if they don’t? Don’t you think it’s a good idea to investigate and inquire and at least consider the possibility that maybe these should be included in our Bibles?

It’s like you don’t even value the Word of God enough to care one way or the other. You sound like an atheist who cares nothing for God’s Word. Almost everything Andrew and I have said, you have twisted it beyond oblivion. You even twist what Martin Luther said.

Good grief, man. You’re impossible to reason with.
 

NathanH83

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I am not arguing for it or against it. I provide helpful information in order to correct misinformation and for those who make not be aware of the facts.

Be honest. You’re arguing against it, and you know it.
 

NathanH83

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The Bible is record of events so in all fairness according to you no book fulfills prophecy, only the events do, and Luther had certain beliefs of some NT books that you would disagree with him on but because your 500 year old church tells you which books belong and which don't -I find that to be your strongest argument.. Luther got these books from tradition down to the very fathers themselves which spoke of these books as Holy Scripture in their letters.
Again you have Canon and you have Ecclesiastical books, both are considered Sacred and Holy Scriptures, both were included in the Holy Bible, the division was no division at all. Read the early church fathers if you dont believe me, they even quote from the "apocrypha" or second canon as words from the very mouth of Jesus The LORD Himself. Now where would they get that idea?

Josiah is being unreasonably technical.

It’s like if I say, “George Washington is on the dollar bill.”

And then you respond, “Well, TECHNICALLY, George Washington is not ON the dollar bill. It’s just a picture of him. TECHNICALLY SPEAKING.”

This stuff is nonsense.

You’re right. By his logic, no book of the Bible fulfilled any prophecy. They only recorded the events that fulfilled the prophecy…. TECHNICALLY SPEAKING!

This is a ridiculous and twisted word game.

We need to create some kind of game-show spoof, where the title of the game show is….”Let’s Get Technical!”

And your next question:

Does the sun rise in the:
A. The East
B. The West
C. The North
D. The South

And you answer:
“A. The East”

“And the answer is:
E. None of the above! Because the Sun isn’t actually rising. It’s just the Earth that’s spinning…. TECHNICALLY SPEAKING!!”

LET’S GET TECHNICAL!!!
 

NathanH83

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:ROFLMAO::ROFLMAO::ROFLMAO: Now that is a joke coming from you.

So you have no opinion, no personal interest, no inquiry? You’re just an android robot who spits out information with no human interest in the matter?

Give me a break. Stop pretending like you don’t favor one side over the other.
 

Origen

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Josiah

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The Bible is record of events so in all fairness according to you no book fulfills prophecy, only the events do


Andrew,


Correct. So your claim that the book of First Maccabees fulfills a prophecy is ... well... absurd. True, that book (and thousands of others) records an EVENT that many opinionate fulfills that prophecy, but that's a whole other enchilada.

I disagreed with your claim. And the attempt to say that First Maccabees must be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God that legally must be included in every tome with "BIBLE" on the cover BECAUSE that BOOK (those pages) fulfills prophecy is ... well.... baseless.




Andrew said:
your 500 year old church tells you which books belong and which don't


No, Andrew. Altogether on purpose, the Lutheran Confessions are SILENT on this point. Luther himself was questioned about whether the Lutheran Church SHOULD declare what is and is not fully/equally canonical and his reply was that neither he or any denomination had such authority, that would need to come from an Ecumenical Council (the last ended around 800 AD).

Luther PERSONALLY just accepted ancient, ecumenical TRADITION.... and in his day, not all books were accepted EQUALLY but had various levels of canonicity. While nearly everyone agreed on 27 NT books since 400 AD (most Catholics had 28 but not officially...and some Orthodox churches had a different number, but 27 was common). BUT there were some books "spoken in favor" and some "spoken against" and the first "trumped" the later in terms of canonicity. BUT Luther included ALL of them in his tome - and by TRADITION, so do Lutherans today. The book Luther "removed" (that Catholics STILL whine about!) was the Epistle to the Leodiceans (that 28th book often found in Catholic tomes) but because it did NOT have strong Tradition. For the OT, Luther accepted FOUR levels - the Jews had 3 (Books of Moses, Histories and Prophets, Wisdom) to which Christians added a fourth, the DEUTEROcanonical (DEUTERO = secondary, under, lesser) - the first 3 could be used canonically, the last ONLY to support something found in the other levels. Catholics and Orthodox sometimes STILL call these DEUTEROcanonical (altough Protestants in English often use a term of derision, Apocrypha). Luther INCLUDED ALL the books commonly found in Catholic Bibles found in Germany at the time, accepting the TRADITION. This is one MORE book than the RCC now accepts. At the Council of Trent, the RCC essentially made it's UNIQUE collection all equally canonical (a view never seen before) and Protestants essentially followed suit - EXCEPT for the DEUTERO ones. There the common view (expressed by Luther) continued, made official and binding by the Anglican Church but never by Lutherans. Calvin of course, totally rejected them (something new) and Calvinism has had a huge impact on American Evangelicalism.



Andrew said:
Read the early church fathers if you dont believe me, they even quote from the "apocrypha" or second canon as words from the very mouth of Jesus The LORD Himself. Now where would they get that idea?


No one disagrees that there were leading Christians (4, 5 - maybe a dozen) who USED some DEUTEROcanonical books... and of course MANY, MANY other books too (books you probably do not accept). They quoted and used writings from each other, too (none of which you likely accept as canonical). Today, Christian pastors, teachers, theologians OFTEN quote from books, movies, songs, TV shows, newspapers, etc. that you don't accept as canonical. USING something doesn't make it canonical, my friend.

But YES, on extremely rare occasions.... a handful did so calling such "Scripture." Truth: The "consensus" on what is and is not inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God was NOT perfect or universal. For the NT, "in" often were the Gospels/Acts, the 13 letters of Paul, First Peter, First John, But CONTROVERSAL (not a complete consensus) were 2 Peter, 2-3 John, Jude, James, Hebrews, Revelation, the Epistle of Barnabas, Gospel of Peter, Didache, Hermas, ALL of these were quoted "AS SCRIPTURE" by some, and REJECTED "AS SCRIPTURE" by some. The consensus was not perfect, not universal around ALL.

For the OT, it was much more fluid. Many Jews only accepted the 5 Books of Moses.... but some Jews quoted from MANY books, albeit not necessary EQUALLY. While the Jewish Council of Jamnia (90 AD) is claimed as "settling" things for Jews (it wasn't as perfect as some think) frankly there's no evidence Christians even knew about this (or likely, cared). But EFFECTIVELY, it seems early Christians just carried over the Jewish view at the time, with FOUR levels of canonicity - the fourth very loose with NO consensus on what is and is not in this category. I agree with you, it can be shown that a tiny handful of early leading Christians quoted from SOME and occasionally called such "Scripture" (remember, friend, the word only means "writing" and Christians referred to writings of ECF as "Scripture" too - the term does not necessarily mean inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God). But the reality that readings from SOME were included in the Lectionary and were widely available in 400 AD all suggest there was SOME embrace of SOME (with NO agreement was to WHICH). But were they seen as inerrant? Fully/equally canonical to say the Books of Moses or the Letters of Paul? As verbally and divinely inscripturated words of God? THAT, my friend, is impossible to prove.... and seems quite unlikely. The view that everything found between the covers of a book with BIBLE written on the cover being EQUAL is something only clearly embraced in the last 400-500 years.

And something to consider, my brother. While there was a strong universal conensus around 27 NT books (although NOT perfect!), that's NEVER been true about these DEUTERO books. No two denominations that embrace ANY of them AT ALL agree on which books belong in such. ZERO. And yet this has never been a problem. Never an issue (until Calvin and Trent made it so in the mid-16th Century, and then ONLY in the West). Why? Well... to be blunt my friend.... no one cared much. There was little to nothing of theological consequence here, they were used FAR less than Calvin's 66... yes, much helpful (as is true in MILLIONS of books), much inspirational (as is true in MILLIONS of books) but frankly no reason to embrace them as fully canonical (or not) and thus while the RCC and EOC disagreed on much (and excommunicated each other over such) neither gave a rip about how they disagreed on what is and is not DEUTEROcanonical. They STILL disagree... and they STILL don't give a rip that they do.



Andrew...

Nathan's obsessive emotional rant that "someone" prohibited him from reading some books Calvin rejected is just nonsense. There is no law ANYWHERE... EVER.... that mandates what publishing houses put IN or leave OUT of tomes with "BIBLE" written on the cover. It's just a myth. Heck, just go to any bookstore or google it. And his claim that Christians won't read anything not found between the covers of a tome with "BIBLE" on the cover is just silly (he's never read the NY Times Best Seller List). And NO ONE here has remotely claimed that some books beyond Calvin's 66 can't be helpful or inspirational, he's perpetuating myth there, too. BUT he does seem to have swallowed a common (and kinda of understandable) MYTH among American "Evangelicals" that God in 33 AD send out this mass email to all Christians telling them exactly what books are (and are not) inerrant, canonical, divinely inscripturated words of God. And so everyone had the identical Bible with the same books accepted the same way. But he has a unique twist on this modern American myth.... he thinks God INCLUDED a bunch of books in that email (that he won't identify) and this unidentified "them" were IN every Bible until 500 years ago when some mysterious, unidentified person gathered up all Bibles in Europe and ripped out this "them" - and no one put 'em back. It's a unique twist on the myth I admit, but it's still MYTH. A myth he ENDLESSLY perpetuates, in post after post, thread after thread, every which way (and it seems with your support). He could care less about reality or history, just perpetuating this pure myth.


See post 78



Blessings.


- Josiah




.


 
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Andrew

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Andrew,


Correct. So your claim that the book of First Maccabees fulfills a prophecy is ... well... absurd. True, that book (and thousands of others) records an EVENT that many opinionate fulfills that prophecy, but that's a whole other enchilada.

I disagreed with your claim. And the attempt to say that First Maccabees must be inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God that legally must be included in every tome with "BIBLE" on the cover BECAUSE that BOOK (those pages) fulfills prophecy is ... well.... baseless.







No, Andrew. Altogether on purpose, the Lutheran Confessions are SILENT on this point. Luther himself was questioned about whether the Lutheran Church SHOULD declare what is and is not fully/equally canonical and his reply was that neither he or any denomination had such authority, that would need to come from an Ecumenical Council (the last ended around 800 AD).

Luther PERSONALLY just accepted ancient, ecumenical TRADITION.... and in his day, not all books were accepted EQUALLY but had various levels of canonicity. While nearly everyone agreed on 27 NT books since 400 AD (most Catholics had 28 but not officially...and some Orthodox churches had a different number, but 27 was common). BUT there were some books "spoken in favor" and some "spoken against" and the first "trumped" the later in terms of canonicity. BUT Luther included ALL of them in his tome - and by TRADITION, so do Lutherans today. The book Luther "removed" (that Catholics STILL whine about!) was the Epistle to the Leodiceans (that 28th book often found in Catholic tomes) but because it did NOT have strong Tradition. For the OT, Luther accepted FOUR levels - the Jews had 3 (Books of Moses, Histories and Prophets, Wisdom) to which Christians added a fourth, the DEUTEROcanonical (DEUTERO = secondary, under, lesser) - the first 3 could be used canonically, the last ONLY to support something found in the other levels. Catholics and Orthodox sometimes STILL call these DEUTEROcanonical (altough Protestants in English often use a term of derision, Apocrypha). Luther INCLUDED ALL the books commonly found in Catholic Bibles found in Germany at the time, accepting the TRADITION. This is one MORE book than the RCC now accepts. At the Council of Trent, the RCC essentially made it's UNIQUE collection all equally canonical (a view never seen before) and Protestants essentially followed suit - EXCEPT for the DEUTERO ones. There the common view (expressed by Luther) continued, made official and binding by the Anglican Church but never by Lutherans. Calvin of course, totally rejected them (something new) and Calvinism has had a huge impact on American Evangelicalism.






No one disagrees that there were leading Christians (4, 5 - maybe a dozen) who USED some DEUTEROcanonical books... and of course MANY, MANY other books too (books you probably do not accept). They quoted and used writings from each other, too (none of which you likely accept as canonical). Today, Christian pastors, teachers, theologians OFTEN quote from books, movies, songs, TV shows, newspapers, etc. that you don't accept as canonical. USING something doesn't make it canonical, my friend.

But YES, on extremely rare occasions.... a handful did so calling such "Scripture." Truth: The "consensus" on what is and is not inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God was NOT perfect or universal. For the NT, "in" often were the Gospels/Acts, the 13 letters of Paul, First Peter, First John, But CONTROVERSAL (not a complete consensus) were 2 Peter, 2-3 John, Jude, James, Hebrews, Revelation, the Epistle of Barnabas, Gospel of Peter, Didache, Hermas, ALL of these were quoted "AS SCRIPTURE" by some, and REJECTED "AS SCRIPTURE" by some. The consensus was not perfect, not universal around ALL.

For the OT, it was much more fluid. Many Jews only accepted the 5 Books of Moses.... but some Jews quoted from MANY books, albeit not necessary EQUALLY. While the Jewish Council of Jamnia (90 AD) is claimed as "settling" things for Jews (it wasn't as perfect as some think) frankly there's no evidence Christians even knew about this (or likely, cared). But EFFECTIVELY, it seems early Christians just carried over the Jewish view at the time, with FOUR levels of canonicity - the fourth very loose with NO consensus on what is and is not in this category. I agree with you, it can be shown that a tiny handful of early leading Christians quoted from SOME and occasionally called such "Scripture" (remember, friend, the word only means "writing" and Christians referred to writings of ECF as "Scripture" too - the term does not necessarily mean inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God). But the reality that readings from SOME were included in the Lectionary and were widely available in 400 AD all suggest there was SOME embrace of SOME (with NO agreement was to WHICH). But were they seen as inerrant? Fully/equally canonical to say the Books of Moses or the Letters of Paul? As verbally and divinely inscripturated words of God? THAT, my friend, is impossible to prove.... and seems quite unlikely. The view that everything found between the covers of a book with BIBLE written on the cover being EQUAL is something only clearly embraced in the last 400-500 years.

And something to consider, my brother. While there was a strong universal conensus around 27 NT books (although NOT perfect!), that's NEVER been true about these DEUTERO books. No two denominations that embrace ANY of them AT ALL agree on which books belong in such. ZERO. And yet this has never been a problem. Never an issue (until Calvin and Trent made it so in the mid-16th Century, and then ONLY in the West). Why? Well... to be blunt my friend.... no one cared much. There was little to nothing of theological consequence here, they were used FAR less than Calvin's 66... yes, much helpful (as is true in MILLIONS of books), much inspirational (as is true in MILLIONS of books) but frankly no reason to embrace them as fully canonical (or not) and thus while the RCC and EOC disagreed on much (and excommunicated each other over such) neither gave a rip about how they disagreed on what is and is not DEUTEROcanonical. They STILL disagree... and they STILL don't give a rip that they do.


Nathan's obsessive emotion that "someone" prohibited him from reading some books Calvin rejected is just nonsense. There is no law ANYWHERE... EVER.... that mandates what publishing houses put IN or leave OUT of tomes with "BIBLE" written on the cover. It's just a myth. Heck, just go to any bookstore or google it. And his claim that Christians won't read anything not found between the covers of a tome with "BIBLE" on the cover is just silly (he's never read the NY Times Best Seller List). And NO ONE here has remotely claimed that some books beyond Calvin's 66 can't be helpful or inspirational, he's perpetuating myth there, too. BUT he does seem to have swallowed a common (and kinda of understandable) Protestant MYTH that God in 33 AD sent out this email to every Christian listing what books are and are not inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and ALL Christians accepted that (having identical Bibles, identically embraced) until the RCC added 7 in order to confirm it's false teaching via Sola Scriptura." It's a common Protestant MYTH that Nathan seems to heard.... and realizes it's wrong. But his MYTH is just as wrong, that that mass email INCLUDED some books he persistently refuses to identify.



Blessings.


- Josiah




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No Apocrypha books were ever allowed to be read in church, so for every church father that quotes from non-inspired literature AS inspired are considered heretics.. so lets first define what IS divine and what IS NOT divine..

"This then is the Holy Ghost, who in the Old Testament inspired the Law and the Prophets, in the New the Gospels and the Epistles. Whence also the Apostle says, All Scripture given by inspiration of God is profitable for instruction. And therefore it seems proper in this place to enumerate, as we have learned from the tradition of the Fathers, the books of the New and of the Old Testament, which, according to the tradition of our forefathers, are believed to have been inspired by the Holy Ghost, and have been handed down to the Churches of Christ...

...But it should be Known that there are also other books which our fathers call not Canonical but Ecclesiastical: that is to say, Wisdom, called the Wisdom of Solomon, and another Wisdom, called the Wisdom of the Son of Syrach, which last-mentioned the Latins called by the general title Ecclesiasticus, designating not the author of the book, but the character of the writing. To the same class belong the Book of Tobit, and the Book of Judith, and the Books of the Maccabees... All of which they would have read in the Churches, but not appealed to for the confirmation of doctrine. The other writings they have named Apocrypha. These they would not have read in the Churches.
These are the traditions which the Fathers have handed down to us, which, as I said, I have thought it opportune to set forth in this place, for the instruction of those who are being taught the first elements of the Church and of the Faith, that they may know from what fountains of the Word of God their draughts must be taken"
-Rufinus
 

Josiah

simul justus et peccator
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No Apocrypha books were ever allowed to be read in church

I'm not sure that's true, but pray tell, HOW does that confirm the point that these mysterious, unidentified books you call "apocrypha" are thus inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and there must be a law requiring all publishing houses to include this unidentified "them" into every tome with "BIBLE" appearing on the cover? How does it confirm that "ALL Christians (100% of them) accepted this unidentified "them" as inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely inscripturated words of God?


...But it should be Known that there are also other books which our fathers call not Canonical but Ecclesiastical: that is to say, Wisdom, called the Wisdom of Solomon, and another Wisdom, called the Wisdom of the Son of Syrach, which last-mentioned the Latins called by the general title Ecclesiasticus, designating not the author of the book, but the character of the writing. To the same class belong the Book of Tobit, and the Book of Judith, and the Books of the Maccabees... All of which they would have read in the Churches, but not appealed to for the confirmation of doctrine. The other writings they have named Apocrypha. These they would not have read in the Churches.

Lost me....

so if that's true, pray tell, specifically HOW does that confirm the point that these mysterious, unidentified books you call "apocrypha" are thus inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely-inscripturated words of God and there must be a law requiring all publishing houses to include this unidentified "them" into every tome with "BIBLE" appearing on the cover?

How does it confirm that "ALL Christians (100% of them) accepted this unidentified "them" as inerrant, fully/equally canonical, divinely inscripturated words of God?

How does it confirm that all these (unidentified books) were IN the collection of books "EVERY CHRISTIAN" from 33 AD until the 16th Century accepted as fully canonical, all Christians having the identical same Bible of books accepted identically, until my unidentifed person gathered up all the Bibles and ripped out "those" books?

How does that confirm that Chrsitians are not allowed to read "those" books?

Now IF you are now taking the opposite position from Nathan.... and taking quite the Lutheran and Anglican position that there are books beyond Calvin's 66 that are worthy to be read, worthy to be placed with Scripture, worthy to be read in church and as texts for sermons, but NOT fully canonical (but rather DEUTEROcanonical) then fine. But what about all your earlier claims about how ALL CHRISTIANS accepted "them" as Scripture? That 'they' appeared in all Bibles as fully canonical?




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