Correct. Jesus Christ was/is the only one without sin - and so by your definition, the only one God loves. Now, God sent Jesus to SAVE us sinners (everyone except Jesus) - according to you, all those whom God HATES. So, evidently, God sending Jesus to save us is an act of hate toward those whom He hates. I find that not only unbiblical but absurd. Read John 3:16.... it's an act of LOVE to all the sinners whom He loves, which is exactly what the Bible says.
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(a) John 3:16 ‘
For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him may not perish but may have eternal life.
(b) Psalm 5:5 The boastful will not stand before your eyes;
you hate all evildoers.
Obviously, (a) and (b) cannot coexist at all at the same time and in the same universe, but they can only be true if understood in a different context, which means they can only be true if the respective passages have denoted alternate realities.
That God loves everyone in (a) can only be true in a parallel universe, whereby the Original sin had never existed to begin with.
However, in our present reality, both Adam and Eve (and their descendants) had fallen, which is why it is still true to say that God hates all evildoers in our own Dystopia in (b).
Contradiction between (a) and (b) can only arise if they are taken out of context and assumed to coexist within the same universe, but there is no contradiction at all if they are understood in a different context, so that (a) represents the Utopian alternate reality, but (b) is the dystopian reality where we happen to reside.
Moreover, John 3:16 goes on to say that "only those who believe in Him" will not perish, but will have eternal life instead.
So, already there is a clear distinction between those who believe and those who disbelieve the Gospel, which is clearly stated within the same sentence in verse 16.
Such a distinction also represents a metaphysical demarcation between the alternate reality of Utopia and our own dystopian reality, which are both implied within the same sentence in verse 16.
Of course, God is fully cognizant of the alternate reality of Utopia, which is the very basis of the Biblical doctrine that He supposedly loves everyone in John 3:16, but he clearly hates the dystopian reality of people who've sinned in our own universe in Psalm 5:5, which is the basis of discerning between Utopia and our own dystopian reality by using the same sentence in verse 16.
Ultimately, there is no contradiction at all between (a) and (b) because they denote the different circumstances existing within the multiverse that comprises infinite universes, which are all parallel and divergent from each other.
Disagreement and the use of selective evidence based on the scripture could only arise if they are taken out of context and assumed to coexist within the same universe, but such a conflict can still be avoided by arguing that the different biblical passages have been used to denote the realities of Utopia and Dystopia, which both coexist in parallel with each other.
More importantly, I am concerned about the significant time lapse between the last two comments you've posted at 4:43pm on Saturday and 10:41pm on Sunday.
That the grammatical style has suddenly changed from Ropey English to North American English seems to suggest that this account has been accessed by multiple users.
Consequently, the person who made the penultimate comment on Saturday is clearly not the same person as the one who's posted the most recent comment at 10:41pm on Sunday.
It seems to suggest that the previous respondent has been dead since the early hours of Sunday morning GMT.
