Everybody will acknowledge Jesus is Jehovah

[MoreCoffee]

Psalm 110:1 & Hebrews 1:13: If the [Yahweh, Jehovah] and [God] above are correct, then MoreCoffee's [Jehovah] in his reproduction of Philippians 2:11 (and all will openly proclaim that Jesus Christ is Lord [Jehovah], to the glory of God the Father) must be incorrect. Is that not so?

Philippians 2:5-11 is alluding to Isaiah 45:22-25 in which it is written

Isaiah 45:22-25 "Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the earth! For I am God, and there is no other. [23] By myself I have sworn, from my mouth has gone forth in righteousness a word that shall not return: 'To me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.' [24] Only in Jehovah, it shall be said of me, are righteousness and strength; to him shall come and be ashamed, all who were incensed against him. [25] In Jehovah all the offspring of Israel shall triumph and glory."​

The underlined words are reproduced in the passage from Philippians.

Philippians 2:9-11 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name which is above every name, [10] that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, [11] and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.​

Many bibles include the source for the quote in Philippians 2:10-11. The identification of Jesus with Jehovah is remarkable.

And the words to him shall come and be ashamed, all who were incensed against him. are echoed in the new testament concerning Jesus Christ (Revelation 1:7)

Pedrito also brings the above verses to the attention of visionary, who has also (from memory) expressed the idea that the Jesus of the New Testament was the Yahweh of the Old. To whom was Yahweh speaking in Psalm 110:1?

Pedrito is open to wisdom.

 

[Pedrito]

Once again we seem to owe MoreCoffee a vote of thanks for clarifying (perhaps unwittingly) an important issue for us.

In his attempt to equate the Yahweh (Jehovah) of the Old Testament with the Yeshua (Jesus) of the New, he presented us with some important Scripture. He first quoted Isaiah 45:22-25 [moreCoffee's emphasis retained]:
"Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the earth! For I am God, and there is no other. [23] By myself I have sworn, from my mouth has gone forth in righteousness a word that shall not return: 'To me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.' [24] Only in Jehovah, it shall be said of me, are righteousness and strength; to him shall come and be ashamed, all who were incensed against him. [25] In Jehovah all the offspring of Israel shall triumph and glory."

He then quoted Philippians 2:9-11 [moreCoffee's emphasis retained]:
"Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name which is above every name, [10] that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, [11] and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

He then said:
"The identification of Jesus with Jehovah is remarkable." (Maybe with tongue in cheek, in fact. Is it RCC doctrine that Jesus was the Jehovah of the OT?)

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However, if we have a closer look at Philippians 2:9-11, does it not tell us just how Jesus came to be given that Privilege? By God?[emphasis Pedrito's]

"Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name which is above every name, [10] that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, [11] and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

Does God not thereby teach us:

1. That God granted Jesus to have the same privilege that He Himself had, because, and after, Jesus had died that substitutory death for mankind on the cross?

2. That the identification by God of Himself (Yahweh/Jehovah, in the Hebrew Scriptures) as being the Father (of Israel and of Mankind) – a bidiectional, one-for-one equality – is actually confirmed by Him in the Greek Scriptures (this being one of those places)?

(Have a look at Isaiah 64:8; Jeremiah 31:9; Isaiah 63:16; Malachi 2:10; Exodus 4:22; Deuteronomy 1:31; Deuteronomy 32:6; Hosea 11:1; John 8:41; Matthew 5:16; Matthew 5:48; Luke 6:36)

So, once again, is it not plain that the Yeshua/Jesus of the NT was not the Yahweh/Jehovah of the OT?

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And the following question from Pedrito has not been addressed yet:

To whom was Yahweh speaking in Psalm 110:1?

A Psalm of David. The LORD [Yahweh] said to my Lord, Sit at My right hand until I place Your enemies as Your footstool.