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I would say that there was a voice from heaven declaring of Jesus that "THIS IS MY BELOVED SON, IN WHOM I AM WELL PLEASED" at both Jesus' baptism and on the mount of transfiguration.
So, very obviously, Jesus was the Son of God before He died and rose again.
Was it your contention that He was...
Both at the juncture of Luke 1:35 and in that He always has existed; because in ascending He ascended to exist outside of time (Ephesians 4:10), which is a created thing...and therefore His existence, as the Son, ranges into eternity past.
And also, that Jesus preexisted as concerning His own...
At the juncture of Luke 1:35...while He also ascended to fill all things (Ephesians 4:10) to exist outside of time (since time is a created thing).
If you are of the opinion that
the Father IS NOT the Son IS NOT the Holy Ghost;
as is related by a certain diagram;
then you have Father, Son...
Luke 1:35 tells me that Jesus was conceived of the Holy Spirit in the womb of the virgin Mary and was born ("begotten") nine months later.
I will say again that God gave His only begotten Son when His Son died on the Cross for our sins; and therefore He was begotten before He died and therefore...
By all means, show forth your scriptural reasons for believing that.
Give any of my statements in the post in question and just reference any quote from the Bible that refutes that statement.
Clearly, there is one Lord in holy scripture (Ephesians 4:5); and that Lord is the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21, 2 Corinthians 6:17-18).
Eph 4:5, One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
Mat 11:25, At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because...
Concerning the doctrines of Calvinism, I believe that these messages of Finney, taken at face value on their own merit (whatever else you may think of him) do have the potential to refute Calvinistic doctrine in your thinking.
https://www.gospeltruth.net/1835SOVS/1835sovs_sermonI.htm...
Was Peter being disobedient to the scriptural formula when he baptized them in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, in Acts 2:38?
Or, was he being obedient; so that it can be said that the scriptural formula is actually Acts 2:38?
See Hosea 14:2, Romans 10:9-13, and Acts 2:38-39; all of which are biblical prescriptions given as the means by which we obtain salvation.
John 6:44.
Sure it does. But I believe that you are in denial of the truth.
To be drawn to Christ is not the same thing as being regenerated. If it...