Alcohol content is determined by 3 things:
1) The amount of fermentable sugar to start with
2) The type of yeast used
3) The amount of time it is left to ferment.
4) The conditions of fermentation
All of these play a role in how much alcohol is produced. For example, given the same quantities - grape juice will produce more alcohol than strawberry juice because they contain more sugar. But a grape juice can be stopped mid fermentation to produce a wine with less alcohol and more residual sugar. Sugar content is a big factor in alcohol produced - but only up to a point. After a certain percentage of alcohol is present, the yeast starts to die off due to that alcohol concentration.
It's not really fair to draw a conclusion based on what someone has prepared for consumption - as if everything is the same and no time or ingredient factors play a role in the final product.
Sure, and in the context of the alcohol content of wine the most likely causes for variation between then and now would be the type of yeast and the conditions, given that I'd assume a grape is a grape is a grape and they haven't changed a whole lot. Either way I don't see there's a specific reason to discount wine from 2000 years ago having a lower alcohol content, whether by design or circumstance, but it doesn't really make a difference. If the underlying question is whether alcohol is sinful then the issue with what Jesus produced is whether it was wine as we'd know it today (i.e. alcoholic) or completely free from alcohol.
From memory the law is not to drink alcoholic drink at all, can you point out the additional prohibitions from the law?
It's all in Numbers 6 (I've quoted the first few verses here, you can read the rest if you're interested)
Num 6:1-6 NKJV Then the LORD spoke to Moses, saying, (2) "Speak to the children of Israel, and say to them: 'When either a man or woman consecrates an offering to take the vow of a Nazirite, to separate himself to the LORD, (3) he shall separate himself from wine and similar drink; he shall drink neither vinegar made from wine nor vinegar made from similar drink; neither shall he drink any grape juice, nor eat fresh grapes or raisins. (4) All the days of his separation he shall eat nothing that is produced by the grapevine, from seed to skin. (5) 'All the days of the vow of his separation no razor shall come upon his head; until the days are fulfilled for which he separated himself to the LORD, he shall be holy. Then he shall let the locks of the hair of his head grow. (6) All the days that he separates himself to the LORD he shall not go near a dead body.
If Jesus had taken the Nazirite vows he would have broken them. When he talked of not eating of the fruit of the vine at the Last Supper he would have broken it; he would have broken it when he went into the tomb where the dead Lazarus lay and he would probably have broken it again when he took the vinegar while on the cross.
If Nazareth is simply a town and there is absolutely no connection to the Nazarite law/rituals with Yeshua - which are lengthy and detailed - then how can Yeshua have fulfilled all the law? He must have, else He cannot be Messiah.
Why does Jesus have to fulfil every part of laws that don't apply to him to be the Messiah? He can be a Nazarene without being a Nazirite.
Not that I give Saul/Paul's words any weight here - but wouldn't it be likely that he is talking about someone who actually wants help with their issue? Otherwise that "restoration" can take some form of force in the form of strict laws and punishments if applied from a societal point of view.
Not necessarily, the text says "if a man is overtaken..." rather than "if a man seeks help with...". Of course it needs to be done with tact and humility, lest we also be tempted. In many ways it's really no different to what we might regard as the basics of looking out for each other. If someone is walking towards a cliff edge and apparently oblivious of their pending doom doesn't it make sense to shout at them to warn them, even if they didn't explicitly ask for help?