1 Corinthians 6:9-11
Don’t you realize that those who do wrong will not inherit the Kingdom of God? Don’t fool yourselves. Those who indulge in sexual sin, or who worship idols, or commit adultery, or are male prostitutes, or practice homosexuality, 10 or are thieves, or greedy people, or drunkards, or are abusive, or cheat people—none of these will inherit the Kingdom of God. 11 Some of you were once like that. But you were cleansed; you were made holy; you were made right with God by calling on the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God.
Yay, some Scripture to support the case!
The only real challenge I've seen to the translation of this verse (specifically the Greek
ἀρσενοκοίτης) is whether it refers to a homosexual or "someone effeminate". I'm not entirely convinced of the "effeminate" argument - for me the combination of Romans 1 and the indications in verses like this that homosexuality isn't Scripturally acceptable seem more persuasive than what looks like semantic gymnastics to explain away one verse after another. The key question, at least from the perspective of those looking to justify monogamous homosexual relationships, is how that Greek term is best translated. Where the rest of the text refers to "sexual sin" or "sexual immorality" or similar, those who believe that a monogamous homosexual relationship is acceptable would simply argue that it isn't "sexual immorality" if they are faithful to one partner in the same way a heterosexual married couple would be expected to be. And there's at least some merit in the question, at least insofar as it's faulty reasoning to say "homosexuality is immoral, immorality is sinful, therefore homosexuality is sinful" without first establishing whether or not homosexuality is, in fact, immoral.
Where this verse refers to the Greek
ἀρσενοκοίτης, that term does appear to relate more to men lying with men than with any female behaviors. Looking at Strong's dictionary it appears to be derived from
αρσην which appears to refer to men. That, too, is in keeping with the laws of Leviticus that refer to "a man lying with a man as with a woman" but don't seem to discuss women lying with women.
It's interesting to see that the KJV translates 1Co 6:9 as: "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, ", and the NKJV translates it as "Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites,"
The transition from "effeminate" to "homosexuals" and "abusers of themselves with mankind" to "sodomites" makes me wonder whether the NKJV has merely tweaked the language to make the meaning clearer to people in this day and age (the 17th century was way before my birth so I honestly don't know if "abusers of themselves with mankind" was a 17th-century euphemism for homosexuals that has simply been updated).
This kind of question over the exact meaning of the text (and I make no secret of the fact that the arguments are those presented by those who do not believe that monogamous homosexuality is an abomination, and most of the people I've heard presenting such arguments are homosexual themselves) shows why I believe it's best to study what the text says and look at what the words mean with a view to finding out which side is actually supported. If we teach people that the Bible prohibits homosexuality and quote a couple of verses to support our case, how will our case stand up when a homosexual who appears to have undertaken a more detailed study then casts questions on the precise meaning of the Greek and how it may have related to the culture then compared to how it might relate to the culture now? To someone uncertain, especially someone who may be struggling with homosexual desires of their own, if they hear one argument that quotes a verse from Scripture as if it were the beginning and the ending of the discussion, and then another argument that analyses that verse in considerable detail, which will they find more persuasive? If they have homosexual desires of their own that they are desperately trying to reconcile with the message of Scripture that will simply push them in the direction of the teachings that it is permissible.
On the other hand, if we can look at the arguments presented by those who do not accept what might be called the traditional viewpoint that homosexual acts are detestable to God and look at them in detail we can address them in detail. If nothing else we can make it clear that we've done more than picked a verse from Scripture and not considered anything more than the form of words our preferred translation happened to use.
(Only tangentially related but it shows how different translations can give a different spin on things. If we look at Is 7:14 the pattern between translations is clear - a virgin shall conceive and bring forth a son. But if we look at the GNB the meaning shifts significantly - the GNB says "a young woman who is pregnant will have a son". I'm sure few would argue that a virgin conceiving is a very unusual thing to happen. But there's absolutely nothing special about a young woman who is pregnant having a son - it happens to approximately 50% of young woman who are pregnant. If we only looked at the GNB this passage wouldn't give any indication that something unusual was going on, or that there was anything out of the ordinary about the birth of this child named Immanuel.)