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Did Christ die for them that are perishing ?

brightfame52

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It accomplished the appeasement of Gods Wrath!

People, for the whole world of persons that Christ died for, His Death for them did propitate Gods Wrath for them 1 Jn 2:1-2. God has no more wrath for them. Therefore, where the scripture speaks of people being under Gods Wrath Jn 3:36

He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.


So reasonably concluding, the ones that believes not, and are under Gods Wrath, can't be any Christ died for. 58
 

jswauto

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the appeasement of Gods Wrath!

Scripture Explicitly Says Christ Died for People While They Were Under Wrath

The conclusion collapses because it ignores the apostolic timeline of salvation. Treating “wrath” as a permanent identity rather than a temporal condition. Scripture repeatedly says that the very people Christ died for were, at the time of His death, under wrath, enemies, ungodly, and perishing. The New Testament does not hide this — it emphasizes it.
Paul says plainly:
“While we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of His Son.” — Romans 5:10
Enemies are not neutral. Enemies are under wrath. Yet Paul says Christ’s death reconciled those enemies.
Paul also says:
“Christ died for the ungodly.” — Romans 5:6
The ungodly are not justified, not believing, not regenerated, and absolutely under wrath. Yet Christ died for them.
Paul goes further:
“While we were still sinners, Christ died for us.” — Romans 5:8
“Sinners” here is not a generic category — it is the same group Paul describes as “children of wrath” in Ephesians 2:3. And yet Christ died for them while they were in that condition.
And Paul is explicit:
“We were by nature children of wrath, like the rest of mankind.” — Ephesians 2:3
Who is the “we”? The elect. The saved. The believers Paul is writing to.
Meaning: the elect were under wrath before faith, and Christ died for them while they were under wrath.
If your logic were correct, then:
  • the elect were never enemies,
  • never ungodly,
  • never sinners,
  • never children of wrath,
  • never condemned,
  • never perishing,
  • never alienated,
  • never dead in sins.
But Paul says all of these were true of the elect before regeneration.
Your conclusion reverses Paul’s order:
  • Christ’s death secures reconciliation.
  • The Spirit applies reconciliation.
  • Faith receives reconciliation.
  • Wrath is removed at reconciliation, not at Calvary.
Christ died for people while they were under wrath. Wrath is removed when the Spirit unites them to Christ.
This is Paul’s timeline. Your timeline is not Paul’s.
 

brightfame52

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Scripture Explicitly Says Christ Died for People While They Were Under Wrath

The conclusion collapses because it ignores the apostolic timeline of salvation. Treating “wrath” as a permanent identity rather than a temporal condition. Scripture repeatedly says that the very people Christ died for were, at the time of His death, under wrath, enemies, ungodly, and perishing. The New Testament does not hide this — it emphasizes it.
Paul says plainly:

Enemies are not neutral. Enemies are under wrath. Yet Paul says Christ’s death reconciled those enemies.
Paul also says:

The ungodly are not justified, not believing, not regenerated, and absolutely under wrath. Yet Christ died for them.
Paul goes further:

“Sinners” here is not a generic category — it is the same group Paul describes as “children of wrath” in Ephesians 2:3. And yet Christ died for them while they were in that condition.
And Paul is explicit:

Who is the “we”? The elect. The saved. The believers Paul is writing to.
Meaning: the elect were under wrath before faith, and Christ died for them while they were under wrath.
If your logic were correct, then:
  • the elect were never enemies,
  • never ungodly,
  • never sinners,
  • never children of wrath,
  • never condemned,
  • never perishing,
  • never alienated,
  • never dead in sins.
But Paul says all of these were true of the elect before regeneration.
Your conclusion reverses Paul’s order:
  • Christ’s death secures reconciliation.
  • The Spirit applies reconciliation.
  • Faith receives reconciliation.
  • Wrath is removed at reconciliation, not at Calvary.
Christ died for people while they were under wrath. Wrath is removed when the Spirit unites them to Christ.
This is Paul’s timeline. Your timeline is not Paul’s.
jswauto, you are spinning in a circle of your own legal contradictions. You are completely confusing the legal satisfaction of God’s justice at Calvary with the experiential application of that victory in the conscience of the sinner. Let’s correct your timeline and look at how courtroom law actually operates.

You state with absolute confidence: "Wrath is removed at reconciliation, not at Calvary." But in the exact same breath, you admit: "Christ’s death secures reconciliation."

Let’s apply basic legal logic to your contradictory statements:

If reconciliation was secured at Calvary by His death, then the legal basis for the removal of wrath was completely, unalterably finished 2,000 years ago! If God's wrath is still legally active against the elect—meaning they are in danger of eternal damnation until they perform an act of faith—then Christ's death did not secure a single thing. It only made salvation a possibility that man must finalize.

You run to Ephesians 2:3 where Paul says the elect were “by nature the children of wrath, even as others.” You think this text proves that God’s legal wrath was not appeased at the cross.

You are completely failing to distinguish between our natural/experiential condition in time and our legal/covenantal standing before the throne of God.

Naturally and experientially, before regeneration, the elect are totally dead in sin, carnal, hostile, and under the felt condemnation of a broken Law. They are walking the path of destruction.

But legally, what was their status? Look at the very text you quoted! Romans 5:10 explicitly states: “For if, when we were enemies, we WERE RECONILED to God by the death of his Son...”

The Greek verb is katēllagēmen—which is an aorist passive. It denotes a fully completed, past-tense legal transaction!

Let's look at the absolute finality of this courtroom ledger: Isaiah 59:2 says sin causes absolute separation between man and God. God cannot be reconciled to anyone whose sins are still charged to their account. Therefore, if the elect were reconciled to God by the death of His Son while they were still enemies, it is a mathematical certainty that God's legal wrath toward them was fully, completely, and eternally appeased at Calvary! He blotted out their handwriting of ordinances and nailed it to the tree (Colossians 2:14).

Your system requires an absolute legal absurdity. You are forcing the Holy Spirit to go into an elect soul, unite them to Christ, and apply a "reconciliation" that you claim hadn't actually removed God's wrath yet. You have the Spirit trying to apply a finished victory before the Judge has even accepted the payment.

In my theology, Paul's timeline is unbroken and perfect:
  1. The Cross: Christ functions as the Surety, bears the curse, makes an end of sins (Daniel 9:24), and completely appeases legal wrath for His elect, leaving them objectively reconciled to God while they are still unborn enemies.
  2. The New Birth: The Holy Spirit sovereignly breaks into the dead soul of the elect via immediate regeneration without the Gospel, giving them life.
  3. The Gospel (Time Salvation): The preaching of Christ brings that finished legal reconciliation out into the open light (2 Tim 1:10). Faith is the eye that sees the wrath has already been turned away by the blood of the Lamb.
Stop trying to make your faith the pivot point that turns away God's wrath. Stop preaching a failed cross where wrath remains active against people whose debt you claim was paid. Bow to the absolute, sin-ending efficacy of the blood of Christ, and believe the finished record of the Son!


 
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