justbyfaith
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- Nov 7, 2023
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1Jo 1:8, If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
Notice it does not say, "If we say that we do no sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us".
If that were the case, it would be in contradiction to 1 John 3:4-9.
But it (interpretation #1) is speaking of indwelling sin.
That is, the element of sin dwells within us but it can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) so that it no longer has any authority over what we do (Romans 6:14).
Interpretation #2:
1 John 1:8 is qualified by Hebrews 4:15.
Heb 4:15, For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
That is, that Jesus was without sin in that when He was tempted, He never gave in and therefore He never sinned even once in His lifetime.
1 John 1:8 then meaning that if we say that we have no sin in this sense (saying that we have never sinned), then we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.
If this is the interpretation, then 1 John 1:8 is not speaking of indwelling sin and neither is it saying that we cannot live in victory and freedom over sin. It would merely be stating that we must agree with Romans 3:23 and believe that we have sinned at some point during our lifetime.
And if this is the case, then 1 John 1:10 is merely reiterating what is written in 1 John 1:8 in slightly different words.
Col 2:11 (nlt), When you came to Christ, you were “circumcised,” but not by a physical procedure. Christ performed a spiritual circumcision—the cutting away of your sinful nature.
This scripture would appear to substantiate the idea of "sinless perfection" (interpretation #2) as opposed to "entire sanctification" in interpretation #1.
Also in substantiation of this idea, 1 John 3:5 and 5:20.
1Jo 3:5, And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
1Jo 5:20, And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
If we are in Him, and in Him is no sin, then there is no sin in __.
However, I do believe that Romans 6 teaches us that we are to reckon ourselves as being utterly sinful in its full context.
Here is the teaching on that.
Rom 6:7, For he that is dead is freed from sin.
Rom 6:8, Now if we be dead with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him:
Rom 6:9, Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him.
Rom 6:10, For in that he died, he died unto sin once: but in that he liveth, he liveth unto God.
Rom 6:11, Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.
In v. 10, Jesus died to sin. How did He do so? For He was sinless from His conception onward.
The answer is in the following.
2Co 5:21, For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
Jesus became sin for us that we might become the righteousness of the Lord in Him...He became utterly sinful when He died on the Cross and took the penalty for our sins.
Now, in verse 11, "LIkewise"...
In the same manner that Jesus became utterly sinful on our behalf, we are to reckon ourselves to be dead to sin in the same manner...as utterly sinful in the flesh...
so that in that we are dead, we are freed from sin; but in that we are dead unto sin, we are utterly sinful.
Thus, Romans 6:7-11 bears out interpretation #1 rather than interpretation #2.
So, I will say that we can rehash 1 John 3:5 by putting a note next to it.
1Jo 3:5, And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no (sin / sinful behaviour.)
With this added note, we find that 1 John 3:5, in conjunction with 1 John 5:20, does not teach sinless perfection of the believer; while it does teach "entire sanctification"
"entire sanctification" (interpretation #1) being the teaching that we can walk in absolute freedom and victory over the power of sin so that we do not sin any more as believers.
"sinless perfection" (interpretation #2) resulting in the same result (that we do not sin any more) and yet being in contradiction to interpretation #1 of 1 John 1:8 as well as what I have preached to you of Romans 6:7-11. Its teaching would be that sin is eradicated from us and that we are delivered from the presence of sin in this lifetime, rather than just its power.
Notice it does not say, "If we say that we do no sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us".
If that were the case, it would be in contradiction to 1 John 3:4-9.
But it (interpretation #1) is speaking of indwelling sin.
That is, the element of sin dwells within us but it can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8) so that it no longer has any authority over what we do (Romans 6:14).
Interpretation #2:
1 John 1:8 is qualified by Hebrews 4:15.
Heb 4:15, For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
That is, that Jesus was without sin in that when He was tempted, He never gave in and therefore He never sinned even once in His lifetime.
1 John 1:8 then meaning that if we say that we have no sin in this sense (saying that we have never sinned), then we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.
If this is the interpretation, then 1 John 1:8 is not speaking of indwelling sin and neither is it saying that we cannot live in victory and freedom over sin. It would merely be stating that we must agree with Romans 3:23 and believe that we have sinned at some point during our lifetime.
And if this is the case, then 1 John 1:10 is merely reiterating what is written in 1 John 1:8 in slightly different words.
Col 2:11 (nlt), When you came to Christ, you were “circumcised,” but not by a physical procedure. Christ performed a spiritual circumcision—the cutting away of your sinful nature.
This scripture would appear to substantiate the idea of "sinless perfection" (interpretation #2) as opposed to "entire sanctification" in interpretation #1.
Also in substantiation of this idea, 1 John 3:5 and 5:20.
1Jo 3:5, And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
1Jo 5:20, And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
If we are in Him, and in Him is no sin, then there is no sin in __.
However, I do believe that Romans 6 teaches us that we are to reckon ourselves as being utterly sinful in its full context.
Here is the teaching on that.
Rom 6:7, For he that is dead is freed from sin.
Rom 6:8, Now if we be dead with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him:
Rom 6:9, Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him.
Rom 6:10, For in that he died, he died unto sin once: but in that he liveth, he liveth unto God.
Rom 6:11, Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.
In v. 10, Jesus died to sin. How did He do so? For He was sinless from His conception onward.
The answer is in the following.
2Co 5:21, For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
Jesus became sin for us that we might become the righteousness of the Lord in Him...He became utterly sinful when He died on the Cross and took the penalty for our sins.
Now, in verse 11, "LIkewise"...
In the same manner that Jesus became utterly sinful on our behalf, we are to reckon ourselves to be dead to sin in the same manner...as utterly sinful in the flesh...
so that in that we are dead, we are freed from sin; but in that we are dead unto sin, we are utterly sinful.
Thus, Romans 6:7-11 bears out interpretation #1 rather than interpretation #2.
So, I will say that we can rehash 1 John 3:5 by putting a note next to it.
1Jo 3:5, And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no (sin / sinful behaviour.)
With this added note, we find that 1 John 3:5, in conjunction with 1 John 5:20, does not teach sinless perfection of the believer; while it does teach "entire sanctification"
"entire sanctification" (interpretation #1) being the teaching that we can walk in absolute freedom and victory over the power of sin so that we do not sin any more as believers.
"sinless perfection" (interpretation #2) resulting in the same result (that we do not sin any more) and yet being in contradiction to interpretation #1 of 1 John 1:8 as well as what I have preached to you of Romans 6:7-11. Its teaching would be that sin is eradicated from us and that we are delivered from the presence of sin in this lifetime, rather than just its power.
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