Yes, he did use the word "virgin." Can you provide any objective evidence as to why?
Yes he did. The point being that he made a separate translation of the Hebrew text. Your source proves my point. It states Jerome made "a new translation of the Hebrew Masoretic text."
Yeah, his second one included both and it was written in Bethlehem, the third he finally bowed down to the Rabbis, this is why the Church kept the 1rst and 2nd Psalter for so long, and which is why now the psalms in the Masoretic are so different from the NT quotes because its from the 3rd translation of psalms.
Here is Jerome kind of being a jerk having an attitude because the Church at the time did not like the Hebrew psalms (the 3rd)
"Therefore, because recently, when disputing with a Hebrew, you produced certain testimonies about the Lord Savior from the Psalms, and he, wishing to outmaneuver you,6 asserted throughout nearly every one of the words that it is not found thus in Hebrew, so that you were opposed to the Seventy interpreters, you most zealously demanded that, after Aquila, Symmachus and Theodotion, I translated a new edition in the Latin language. For you said yourself to be greatly confused by the variety of interpreters, and that you are inclined by love7 to be content with either my translation or my judgment. For this reason, having been compelled by you, to whom I am unable to deny even those things I cannot do, I again handed myself over to the barkings of detractors, and I preferred you to question my strengths rather than my willingness in friendship. Certainly I will speak confidently and I will cite many witnesses of this work, knowing myself in this matter to have changed nothing of the truth of the Hebrew. Therefore, wherever my edition has differed from the old ones, ask any of the Hebrews, and you will clearly see me to be torn in pieces by those striving after error, who “prefer to be seen to condemn the brilliant rather than to learn,”8 most perverse men. For when they always desire new delicacies, and their gullets, like the seas, do not suffice, why in only study of the Scriptures are they content with an old flavor? I do not say this so that I might bite my predecessors, nor have I considered slandering any translation of those which I very diligently corrected, (and) formerly gave to men of my language; but that it is one thing to read the Psalms in the churches of those believing in Christ, another thing to answer the Jews who accuse every word.
But if, as you proffer, you will have translated my little work into Greek, Opposing the Ridiculers,9 and you will have made the most learned men witnesses to my ignorance, I will say to you that (saying) of Horace, “You do not carry wood into a forest.”10 Except that I have this solace, if in the common work I know both praise and slander to be common to me and you.
I desire you to be well in the Lord Jesus, and to remember me"
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Well there you go, Unbelieving Jews are right, Christians are wrong, even Jesus who quoted Psalms was wrong according to the Jews and according to Jerome obviously, if he hadn't had trusted them he wouldn't have created the 3rd Hebrew psalter