Andrew
Matt 18:15
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- Aug 25, 2017
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If the LXX predates the Masoretic, and the New Testament quotations of the old are practically verbatim to the LXX and not the Masoretic...then what's the logic behind it?Since we have no original Hebrew manuscripts your comment cannot be supported. It is not only pure speculation but disingenuous.
And besides, all Septuagint manuscripts do not have exactly the same text. They have textual differences between them.
Was the LXX created to correct the errors of the NT quotations like some Jewish rabbis suggest? Or was the LXX closer to an earlier Hebrew text that no longer exists?
The LXX is not perfect, neither Nathan or I ever claimed the that it's perfect, there are many versions of it and plus it's very ancient, the Masoretic has only one version and it's very recent (a thousand years later).
The proto Hebrew Masoretic mixed with the LXX (our OT according to Jerome) is just as sloppy as the LXX (for their many codex's) but the LXX (pick or choose your codex) is far more accurate than the Hebrew Masoretic according to the New Testament.
The Apocrypha books are found in the more accurate body (LXX).
If you can find any testimony from before the Christian era that declare any "apocrypha" book to be defined as such then please provide evidence.
IF Jesus misquoted any verses that had to be corrected by Christians later on, then why wasn't their any objections or questioning from his disciples? When he says "it is written" then by God IT IS, where is it written in the OT "Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings thou hast perfected praise"?
and how did the LXX get it right?
We can say "well it's basically the same thing".. but still the LXX agrees, just luck or later forged?