The word means "dog."
View attachment 1331Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon, pp. 476-477
View attachment 1332Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, vol 1, p. 439
View attachment 1333
The Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon of the Old Testament, vol 2, p. 476
View attachment 1334
Dictionary of Classical Hebrew, vol. 4, p. 415
View attachment 1335
New International Dictionary of Old Testament Theology and Exegesis, vol.2 p. 632.
כט שְׁלֹשָׁה הֵמָּה, מֵיטִיבֵי צָעַד; וְאַרְבָּעָה, מֵיטִבֵי לָכֶת.I agree it can also refer to a backslider, once loyal but then untamed, that makes since too, backsliders are also kept outside the Kingdom
Have you ever considered that the English use of dog is incomparable to the hebrew keleb.The word means "dog."
View attachment 1331Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon, pp. 476-477
View attachment 1332Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, vol 1, p. 439
View attachment 1333
The Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon of the Old Testament, vol 2, p. 476
View attachment 1334
Dictionary of Classical Hebrew, vol. 4, p. 415
View attachment 1335
New International Dictionary of Old Testament Theology and Exegesis, vol.2 p. 632.
Hebrew is a raisin sword with a scabbard of husk....seem to point to the Septuagint as a more accurate and proper vorlage of an earlier original Hebrew text in opposition to the common Masoretic Hebrew text used today in most modern bibles..
Knowing that the council of Jamnia in 90 AD was the first ever assembly and establishment in regards to Hebrew canon (for unknown reasons by unbelieving Jewish high priests) leads me to believe without a doubt that God intended a translation for the gentiles and Jews of that era, meaning that the "canon" was settled by God through the Septuagint and every book it included -as inspired and not to be neglected.
How does one counter these facts to the contrary?
Why do protestants follow the tradition of the RCC with Jerome's advice from the unbelieving Jews he studied under -that certain books in the Septuagint were neither of any importance nor were they translated correctly..?
Song of Solomon 1:5Hebrew is a raisin sword with a scabbard of husk.
Name the 6 husk and I'll show the scabbard .
You've alot to learn youngin.
In his preface to the book of Isaiah in his new translation he wrote "The Jews can no longer scoff at our churches because of the falsity of our scriptures"As I said before, we have no LXX complete or near complete manuscripts before the 4th century A.D. And the ones we do have are Christian. There are only a few fragments that predate the 4th century A.D.
Moreover the manuscripts and codices of the Septuagint are not uniformed. No two are exactly alike. They all differ in some way.
Please point to the manuscript evidence which supports that claim.
Please provide a quote and the sources where Jerome states that is what he did.
I like David Bercot and have no doubt he believes what he says but that is not hard evidence. I am not going to take the word of someone without evidence. Moreover nothing he says contradict any of the points I made.The proof is in the translation which combined both proto masoretic and the LXX.
David Bercot points the instances out in his lectures, he's well studied in early Christianity and early church writers.
Here is his audio lecture on Jerome, you can find the other parts on the same channel.
I don't have Jerome's writings handy, I still don't know what to make of "out of Egypt" being wrong in the lxx, I do know that Jerome doesn't always side with the hebrew, rabbis point that out all of the time, when it differs it's almost always found in the LXXI like David Bercot and have no doubt he believes what he says but that is not hard evidence. I am not going to take the word of someone simply because he says. Moreover nothing he says contradict any of the points I made.
Let me remind you (see post 283).
You stated: "The LXX was composed of several versions of the Septuagint, one of which was likely Aquilas version"
I replied: "We have no LXX complete or near complete manuscripts before the 4th century A.D. And the ones we do have are Christian. There are only a few fragments that predate the 4th century A.D. Moreover the manuscripts and codices of the Septuagint are not uniformed. No two are exactly alike. They all differ in some way."
You stated: "Jerome later would switch around verses from Origins composition with the prot-Masoretic which also differs in a few areas from the Christian Masoretic"
I replied: "Please point to the manuscript evidence which supports that claim. Please provide a quote and the sources where Jerome states that is what he did."
So again I says:
Please point to the manuscript evidence which supports that claim.
Please provide a quote and the sources where Jerome states that is what he did
Let's consider another case then. Do you consider Isaiah 9:6 messianic?I don't have Jerome's writings handy, I still don't know what to make of "out of Egypt" being wrong in the lxx, I do know that Jerome doesn't always side with the hebrew, rabbis point that out all of the time, when it differs it's almost always found in the LXX
Let's consider an other case then. Do you consider Isaiah 9:6 messianic?
For to us a child is born,
to us a son is given;
and the government shall be upon his shoulder,
and his name shall be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. (ESV)
Thanks for pointing that outLet's consider an other case then. Do you consider Isaiah 9:6 messianic?
For to us a child is born,
to us a son is given;
and the government shall be upon his shoulder,
and his name shall be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. (ESV)
Excellent! That note tells you that not all LXX manuscripts read alike. That means, just as I said in post 309:Yeah my Brenton has a note "Alex. +" meaning its from the Alexandrian text with additions "wonderful counsellor, mighty one..."