Early Christian writings along with the NT...

Andrew

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Leave the hostility aside for a moment and use your facilities of reason with accuracy.

The septugugu is a farse recorded by the enemy of the jewish people to prove theirdd suppossed dominance over them.

Do you understand?

I understand that you are likely parroting something that has been told to you or that you blindly accept.. what is your source for your claims that the Septuagint was "made up" by "enemies of the Jewish people"? You do know that the OT portion of most modern day bibles are a combination of BOTH the Masoretic AND the LXX... don't you?
 
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pinacled

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I understand that you are likely parroting something that has been told to you or that you blindly accept.. what is your source for your claims that the Septuagint was "made up" by "enemies of the Jewish people"? You do know that the OT portion of most modern day bibles are a combination of BOTH the Masoretic AND the LXX... don't you?
I understand that the torah and hebrew is older than greek or latin.
And that any assertion otherwise is untrue.

Torah scrolls have been around for thousands of yrs and passed on to family in both written and oral for thousands of generations.

For you to continue in hostility against Josiah is inappropriate behavior.

Do you understand
 

Andrew

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I understand that the torah and hebrew is older than greek or latin.
And that any assertion otherwise is untrue.

Torah scrolls have been around for thousands of yrs and passed on to family in both written and oral for thousands of generations.

For you to continue in hostility against Josiah is inappropriate behavior.

Do you understand
Me and Josiah are just having a debate, we aren't being hostile towards each other.. we can agree to disagree at any moment and it would make no difference in our salvation from our Lord Jesus Christ, no matter how many translations etc.. the final and incorruptible AUTHORITY of the Bible and Gospel message remains
 

pinacled

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Me and Josiah are just having a debate, we aren't being hostile towards each other.. we can agree to disagree at any moment and it would make no difference in our salvation from our Lord Jesus Christ, no matter how many translations etc.. the final and incorruptible AUTHORITY of the Bible and Gospel message remains
Discuss scripture in spirit and truth instead of looking for sources from the enemy to provide debate as you call it.
 

pinacled

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Me and Josiah are just having a debate, we aren't being hostile towards each other.. we can agree to disagree at any moment and it would make no difference in our salvation from our Lord Jesus Christ, no matter how many translations etc.. the final and incorruptible AUTHORITY of the Bible and Gospel message remains
My point is that reading from a hebrew to english tanakh will help in removing dross.
And further implement a needed tempering in conversation of oil.

One such example is a number of stars given in dreams.
 

Andrew

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Discuss scripture in spirit and truth instead of looking for sources from the enemy to provide debate as you call it.
I appreciate the sentiment but its actually unnecessary, I am not against Josiah I am just in merry pursuit of understanding early Christian beliefs according to their letters and what they held as Holy scripture, from my studies alongside their studies I find that regardless of what became of the RCC, the ante Nicene university of early Christianity had as much to say back then as any pasture/priest has today.. and for that I accept the first ever translated common language of scripture as divine as any translation today but that the source of much of the translation is not of the original source that Jesus and the Apostles quoted from IMO
 

pinacled

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I appreciate the sentiment but its actually unnecessary, I am not against Josiah I am just in merry pursuit of understanding early Christian beliefs according to their letters and what they held as Holy scripture, from my studies alongside their studies I find that regardless of what became of the RCC, the ante Nicene university of early Christianity had as much to say back then as any pasture/priest has today.. and for that I accept the first ever translated common language of scripture as divine as any translation today but that the source of much of the translation is not of the original source that Jesus and the Apostles quoted from IMO
What source language of hebrew scripture do you suppose ole sh'aul(paul) the pharisee quoted from?
 

pinacled

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I appreciate the sentiment but its actually unnecessary, I am not against Josiah I am just in merry pursuit of understanding early Christian beliefs according to their letters and what they held as Holy scripture, from my studies alongside their studies I find that regardless of what became of the RCC, the ante Nicene university of early Christianity had as much to say back then as any pasture/priest has today.. and for that I accept the first ever translated common language of scripture as divine as any translation today but that the source of much of the translation is not of the original source that Jesus and the Apostles quoted from IMO
If I recall correctly ole sh'aul mentioned something about vain and empty arguments along with ignoring vain genealogies.
 

Andrew

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What source language of hebrew scripture do you suppose ole sh'aul(paul) the pharisee quoted from?
A more earlier Hebrew text than what the Masoretic was copied from, Paul's letters were written in greek... that's a dead giveaway right there.. actually all of the NT was written in greek for that matter, I mean it WAS the common tongue even for the Jews, if not then please provide me some original NT hebrew text.. its all greek my friend, because that was the common tongue unless you were a rabbinic Jewish scribe living in Jerusalem during those times
 

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A more earlier Hebrew text than what the Masoretic was copied from, Paul's letters were written in greek... that's a dead giveaway right there.. actually all of the NT was written in greek for that matter, I mean it WAS the common tongue even for the Jews, if not then please provide me some original NT hebrew text.. its all greek my friend, because that was the common tongue unless you were a rabbinic Jewish scribe living in Jerusalem during those times
Incorrect.
Ole sh'aul(Paul) addressed this issue in his letters to the gentile/greek/ hellenistic jews who were dependent upon greek and Roman authority.
 

pinacled

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Are you ready andy
 

Josiah

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Me and Josiah are just having a debate, we aren't being hostile towards each other.. we can agree to disagree at any moment and it would make no difference in our salvation from our Lord Jesus Christ, no matter how many translations etc.. the final and incorruptible AUTHORITY of the Bible and Gospel message remains


Yes.

Andrew and I are brothers in Christ and personal friends. There is mutual respect. It's just that, on occasion, he is wrong about stuff. Not often, but sometimes. ;)



.
 
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Josiah

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Jews for the Jewish Scripture? You mean our OT? In 90 AD? ...and you trust these unbelievers when it was already recorded via the Septuagint (which is based on an earlier Hebrew text opposed to the Masoretic)..
You know what else was in their list of prophets?? Not John the baptist.. so you take the same Jews who had Jesus crucified as ordained and/or qualified to produce OUR OT canon?


See post #3.


1. To the issue of what books are or are not Scripture, I find it entirely irrelevant how some translator (or group thereof) did one of the thousands of translations there are.


2. I never remotely mentioned that I trust or rely or believe anything or anyone about anything in this regard.


3 As far as any knows, Jesus never officially/formally declared for the church catholic what is and is not Scripture. Indeed, 27 books you likely accept didn't exist when He was among us so He could not have declared any of those to be Scripture for the church catholic.

Again, see post #3




you said that no Christians follow THEIR example, which is untruthful on your part


Okay. Then just list which of the Seven Ecumenical Councils officially/formally/definitively declared for all Christians what books are and are not Scripture. Give the date and the place where that specific list of books was officially/definitively declared by the church.

Yes, JEWS did that.... at an official Council of that religion.... at the city of Jamnia.... in 90 AD. That established THEIR canon of Scripture... that material. That official declaration settled that issue, once and for all Jews. Whether God was involved or not... whether they were believers or unbelievers is irrelevant, JEWS did that - at an official Jewish Council, in the city of Jamnia, in 90 AD, listing EXACTLY what books are accepted as Scripture for Judaism, and all Jews thereafter accepted that. No, Christianity has never done the same. You state that's "untruthful." Okay, then give the City and Date where the church catholic held an authoritative Council for all Christianity and at it formally and officially for all Christianity declared what books ARE and are NOT Scripture for Christianity.... just give the place and date of that official declaration.... give the statement it declared with the list of books.... If you can do that then yup, I'm "untruthful." Otherwise, you are.





,
 
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Andrew

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See post #3.


1. To the issue of what books are or are not Scripture, I find it entirely irrelevant how some translator (or group thereof) did one of the thousands of translations there are.


2. I never remotely mentioned that I trust or rely or believe anything or anyone about anything in this regard.


3 As far as any knows, Jesus never officially/formally declared for the church catholic what is and is not Scripture. Indeed, 27 books you likely accept didn't exist when He was among us so He could not have declared any of those to be Scripture for the church catholic.

Again, see post #3







Okay. Then just list which of the Seven Ecumenical Councils officially/formally/definitively declared for all Christians what books are and are not Scripture. Give the date and the place where that specific list of books was officially/definitively declared by the church.

Yes, JEWS did that.... at an official Council of that religion.... at the city of Jamnia.... in 90 AD. That established THEIR canon of Scripture... that material. That official declaration settled that issue, once and for all Jews. Whether God was involved or not... whether they were believers or unbelievers is irrelevant, JEWS did that - at an official Jewish Council, in the city of Jamnia, in 90 AD, listing EXACTLY what books are accepted as Scripture for Judaism, and all Jews thereafter accepted that. No, Christianity has never done the same. You state that's "untruthful." Okay, then give the City and Date where the church catholic held an authoritative Council for all Christianity and at it formally and officially for all Christianity declared what books ARE and are NOT Scripture for Christianity.... just give the place and date of that official declaration.... give the statement it declared with the list of books.... If you can do that then yup, I'm "untruthful." Otherwise, you are.





,
Exclusiveness depends on denomination ever since the reformation, the RCC did exactly what the Jews did in 90 AD, using canon to bar off any opposers within the congregation. The Council of Trent was in response to the protestant reformation, protestants on the other hand technically have no official declaration of the OT canon.
Early Christians post-Jamnia likewise were in the same boat, there was no need to declare what's inclusive or not in regards to the OT books, they had the Greek translations handy up until Jerome translated the later "canonized" version of the Hebrew Tanakh and demoted the books that the Jews rejected, basically anything written during the hellenistic era.
Throwing away books that the Christianized Jews and Gentiles traditionally held as inspired scripture just because the unbelieving Jews said so is absurd, why not throw out the NT along with it?
Again, even in the NT we read of the parents of the blind man trying to keep quiet of a miracle Jesus had performed so that they could still worship God in the synagogues.. Christians were not welcome.. by declaring a canon the Jews kept their estate in the synagogues.

Luther had an issue with certain writings that the dogmatist RCC had twisted out of context to endorse new and strange traditions, instead of refuting the RCC dogmas using proper exegesis of these books he simply tossed them out in spite without ever trying. I understand he questioned the books divinity especially if they went against his doctrine of faith alone, but they don't. Protestants have no problem harmonizing Peter and James, Luther did.. he also questioned the books of Hebrews, Jude and Revelation, Lutherans don't have a problem with harmonizing faith alone with those books.. ("Luther's Antilegomena")

So although Luther excelled in using exegesis to expose the Catholic church's false doctrine of "works", he failed in using exegesis from the so called "apocrypha" that would prove the Catholic church took them out of context to promote selling of indulgences.

The Septuagint did not contain greek writings, they were Jewish writings, they weren't added later on by Catholics, they were simply tossed out by unbelieving Jews in the 1rst century.

Early Christians had no need for canon, just discernment of what the Gospel message is and isn't according to the apostles. The Septuagint is simply more accurate because it's copied from a more accurate Hebrew that Jesus quoted from opposed to the Masoretic that was introduced some 1000 years later that would become the OT in our bibles today..

Btw, Council of Rome, Hippo and Carthage
 

Josiah

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Luther had an issue with certain writings that the dogmatist RCC had twisted out of context to endorse new and strange traditions, instead of refuting the RCC dogmas using proper exegesis of these books he simply tossed them out in spite without ever trying.


Luther INCLUDED all the books the individual RC Denomination would LATER include in that individual, singular denomination's eventual embrace of the canon - PLUS one book. He personally, however, noted that some of these books had a long, long history of not being considered EQUAL in norming to the 66. It was his personal opinion - one Lutheranism never officially embraced but one Anglicanism sorta did.

Luther "tossed out" ONE book. ONE. It was the Epistle to the Leodiceans. That epistle. It was NEVER officially embraced by the RCC but it appeared in most RCC tomes (but NO Orthodox ones!!!!!). It is the book Luther "tossed out." It is the ONE and ONLY book Luther excluded, rejected, NOT included in his personal collection in his personal translation. It is the ONE and ONLY book he eliminated. Catholics don't like to tell you which book Luther excluded because so did the RC Denomination at Trent. But Luther's personal translation has one MORE book in it's content than the modern, post-Trent RCC one.

Now, this has NOTHING....absolutely NOTHING WHATSOEVER ... to do with the LXX or Latin Vulgate or any of the hundreds of TRANSLATIONS that came before Luther's. Nothing.



Andrew said:
the RCC did exactly what the Jews did in 90 AD


Exactly as I noted.

Christianity NEVER did what Judaism did in 90 AD. There has NEVER been a Church Council of Christianity that officially, formally declared what is and is not Scripture/canon/norma normans. Never. Christianity never followed the example of the Jewish Council of Jamnia.

Yes, a few individual, singular DENOMINATIONS did so, by itself, for itself. The RCC UNOFFICIALLY did so at its meeting at Florence in the 15th century and officially at its individual denominational meeting at near-by Trent in the 16th. But that was pretty late... and for ONE and ONLY ONE individual, singular denomination. To this day, not one other denomination agrees with it on this topic, not one other denomination on the whole planet followed it's lead. The Anglican Church also did this in the late 16th Century but declared a DIFFERENT Bible than the RCC had, and this was ONLY for one, singular, individual denomination.... not one other agrees with it on this topic, no other shares the Bible of the Anglican Church. The LDS did this too in the mid 19th Century. But these very late actions were DENOMINATION actions, of ONE denomination, simply declaring UNIQUE, different sets of books.

NEVER has Christianity done what Judaism did in 90 AD. At the Council of Jamnia, the JEWS embraced what we regard as the Old Testament, those 39 books (although the Jews group and name them differently). There's zero evidence that this council gave a rip about the LXX.



he also questioned the books of Hebrews, Jude and Revelation, Lutherans don't have a problem with harmonizing faith alone with those books.. ("Luther's Antilegomena")

People today forget that until the early 17th Century, there was NO universal acceptance of what is and is not Scripture. And still is not. Luther noted that SOME books were pretty much widely accepted (66 by our count) but on TWO DIFFERENT LEVELS. And then there were more accepted on a clearly LOWER level - as NOT canonical but still good and fruitful to read. The Anglican Church would officially embrace this ancient view.... Luther would simply note it.... Lutheranism would be silent on the issue.



he Septuagint is simply more accurate


The LXX is just a TRANSLATION. One of THOUSANDS. Nothing more.

It was done for the exact, identical reason all translation are produced: Customers wanted to read stuff in a language they understood. The LXX has nothing - absolutely nothing - to do with the question of what is and is not the inscripturated words of God and the norma normans for faith and practice. This is a fact you and Nathan seem to ignore. The LXX did not establish the Canon for the Jews (as Jamnia makes obvious and undeniable)... anymore than the Vulgate did for Catholicism or Luther's did for Lutherans.



A blessed Advent to you and yours.


Josiah



 
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Andrew

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Luther INCLUDED all the books the individual RC Denomination would LATER include in that individual, singular denomination's eventual embrace of the canon - PLUS one book. He personally, however, noted that some of these books had a long, long history of not being considered EQUAL in norming to the 66. It was his personal opinion - one Lutheranism never officially embraced but one Anglicanism sorta did.

Luther "tossed out" ONE book. ONE. It was the Epistle to the Leodiceans. That epistle. It was NEVER officially embraced by the RCC but it appeared in most RCC tomes (but NO Orthodox ones!!!!!). It is the book Luther "tossed out." It is the ONE and ONLY book Luther excluded, rejected, NOT included in his personal collection in his personal translation. It is the ONE and ONLY book he eliminated. Catholics don't like to tell you which book Luther excluded because so did the RC Denomination at Trent. But Luther's personal translation has one MORE book in it's content than the modern, post-Trent RCC one.

Now, this has NOTHING....absolutely NOTHING WHATSOEVER ... to do with the LXX or Latin Vulgate or any of the hundreds of TRANSLATIONS that came before Luther's. Nothing.






Exactly as I noted.

Christianity NEVER did what Judaism did in 90 AD. There has NEVER been a Church Council of Christianity that officially, formally declared what is and is not Scripture/canon/norma normans. Never. Christianity never followed the example of the Jewish Council of Jamnia.

Yes, a few individual, singular DENOMINATIONS did so, by itself, for itself. The RCC UNOFFICIALLY did so at its meeting at Florence in the 15th century and officially at its individual denominational meeting at near-by Trent in the 16th. But that was pretty late... and for ONE and ONLY ONE individual, singular denomination. To this day, not one other denomination agrees with it on this topic, not one other denomination on the whole planet followed it's lead. The Anglican Church also did this in the late 16th Century but declared a DIFFERENT Bible than the RCC had, and this was ONLY for one, singular, individual denomination.... not one other agrees with it on this topic, no other shares the Bible of the Anglican Church. The LDS did this too in the mid 19th Century. But these very late actions were DENOMINATION actions, of ONE denomination, simply declaring UNIQUE, different sets of books.

NEVER has Christianity done what Judaism did in 90 AD. At the Council of Jamnia, the JEWS embraced what we regard as the Old Testament, those 39 books (although the Jews group and name them differently). There's zero evidence that this council gave a rip about the LXX.





People today forget that until the early 17th Century, there was NO universal acceptance of what is and is not Scripture. And still is not. Luther noted that SOME books were pretty much widely accepted (66 by our count) but on TWO DIFFERENT LEVELS. And then there were more accepted on a clearly LOWER level - as NOT canonical but still good and fruitful to read. The Anglican Church would officially embrace this ancient view.... Luther would simply note it.... Lutheranism would be silent on the issue.






The LXX is just a TRANSLATION. One of THOUSANDS. Nothing more.

It was done for the exact, identical reason all translation are produced: Customers wanted to read stuff in a language they understood. The LXX has nothing - absolutely nothing - to do with the question of what is and is not the inscripturated words of God and the norma normans for faith and practice. This is a fact you and Nathan seem to ignore. The LXX did not establish the Canon for the Jews (as Jamnia makes obvious and undeniable)... anymore than the Vulgate did for Catholicism or Luther's did for Lutherans.



A blessed Advent to you and yours.


Josiah
The Septuagint was read in the synagogues by Jews for Jews and differs drastically from the Masoretic which didn't even exist during the times of Jesus and the Apostles.

Unbelieving Jews presented to Christianity a Hebrew version that Jesus misquotes from, that distorts the timeline of events, that rephrased a great majority of prophetic verses that originally pointed in great detail to Jesus Christ as the Messiah with a more broader and obscure angle, and that is historically proven to be manufactured by unbelieving Jews for unbelieving Jews (The Masoretic).

Apocrypha aside, the LXX is far more accurate and closer to the original Hebrew text than the Masoretic is.
 
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pinacled

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The Septuagint was read in the synagogues by Jews for Jews and differs drastically from the Masoretic which didn't even exist during the times of Jesus and the Apostles.

Unbelieving Jews presented to Christianity a Hebrew version that Jesus misquotes from, that distorts the timeline of events, that rephrased a great majority of prophetic verses that originally pointed in great detail to Jesus Christ as the Messiah with a more broader and obscure angle, and that is historically proven to be manufactured by unbelieving Jews for unbelieving Jews (The Masoretic).

Apocrypha aside, the LXX is far more accurate and closer to the original Hebrew text than the Masoretic is.
Interesting time stamp to your post.

In address I remind everyone that only Hebrew is read in a synagogue .
Greek during the Lords advent was considered unclean and anathema.

Hence ole sh'aul given a mission to gentiles/hellenistic community of jews.
 

Andrew

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Interesting time stamp to your post.

In address I remind everyone that only Hebrew is read in a synagogue .
Greek during the Lords advent was considered unclean and anathema.

Hence ole sh'aul given a mission to gentiles/hellenistic community of jews.
Where in the Bible does it state what you just said?
 

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