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The De Fide Dogma:
In the singular, individual RC Denomination it has been de fide Dogma since November 1, 1950 that Mary, "having completed the course of her earthly life, was assumed body and soul into heavenly glory".
This doctrine was dogmatically defined by Pope Pius XII on November 1, 1950 by his exercising "papal infallibility" ( a declared de fide dogma of the RC Denomination itself in 1870). It was never declared such by any Ecumenical Council or even any little denominational gathering - it was a declaration of one man - RC Pope Pious X11.
In the East and in Protestantism:
It should be noted that the Eastern Orthodox Church embrace a similar view which they call the Dormition of the Theotokos, but with two noteworthy differences: The EOC embraces this as pious opinion not as de fide dogma. And in the East, there is the embrace that Mary died first but in the singular, individual RC Denomination, the singular man Pious X11 purposely left this issue open. The essential belief is the same.... the status is not.
In Protestantism, there is no dogma (or even official teaching) on this matter in any Protestant denomination (for or against); in Protestantism there is official silence on this (as of course is the position of Scripture, Mary, Jesus and all the Apostles). There are a FEW (mostly in Anglicanism) that like the Orthodox personally hold to this belief but as adiaphora - a permitted view but not a mandated view, the rejection of which leaves ones salvation in question. At MOST, Protestants embrace this as an abiblical view regarded as adiaphoron (neither mandated nor forbidden) although it seems the overwhelming majority of Protestants simply follow Mary, Scripture and that Apostles in silence on this.
Is it True? Necessary?
The individual Pious Xii in 1950 offered nothing to show this opinion of his was true. Or biblical. Or important. Nor did he indicate that it mattered if it was true. But suddenly this view secured imposed de fide dogma status.
My Catholic teachers defended this view as de fide dogma of highest certainty and necessity possible by noting that her body has never been found. This, they noted, proves this view to be True and Necessary to the very highest level possible.
History:
Of course, we have no mention of this from Mary or Jesus or any of the Apostles or in Scripture.
The first known historic personal comment related to this is a statement by Saint Epiphanius of Salamis in AD 377 that no one knew whether Mary had died or not and rejecting the idea of any assumption. However, we do find a statement to the contrary coming much later in 490. By the Seventh Century, at least personal opinions concerning the "assumption" were common. By the ninth century, it was a fairly universal personal opinion. However, none showed it to be true and none insisted it was de fide dogma.
It was declared Dogma by the individual Pope Pius XII on November 1, 1950, by virtue of the claim of the RCC that the Pope of the RCC is "infallible" (and thus unaccountable) and whatever he himself says (ex officio) is to be docilicly swallowed whole.
What is the documentation that this view is true? Necessary? As a matter of highest importance, necessity and certainty possible? What shows that it is TRUE? IMPORTANT, necessary to the highest level possible?
What is your evaluation of this declaration of the "pope" of the individual RC Denomination on November 1, 1950?
Thank you!
- Josiah
.
The De Fide Dogma:
In the singular, individual RC Denomination it has been de fide Dogma since November 1, 1950 that Mary, "having completed the course of her earthly life, was assumed body and soul into heavenly glory".
This doctrine was dogmatically defined by Pope Pius XII on November 1, 1950 by his exercising "papal infallibility" ( a declared de fide dogma of the RC Denomination itself in 1870). It was never declared such by any Ecumenical Council or even any little denominational gathering - it was a declaration of one man - RC Pope Pious X11.
In the East and in Protestantism:
It should be noted that the Eastern Orthodox Church embrace a similar view which they call the Dormition of the Theotokos, but with two noteworthy differences: The EOC embraces this as pious opinion not as de fide dogma. And in the East, there is the embrace that Mary died first but in the singular, individual RC Denomination, the singular man Pious X11 purposely left this issue open. The essential belief is the same.... the status is not.
In Protestantism, there is no dogma (or even official teaching) on this matter in any Protestant denomination (for or against); in Protestantism there is official silence on this (as of course is the position of Scripture, Mary, Jesus and all the Apostles). There are a FEW (mostly in Anglicanism) that like the Orthodox personally hold to this belief but as adiaphora - a permitted view but not a mandated view, the rejection of which leaves ones salvation in question. At MOST, Protestants embrace this as an abiblical view regarded as adiaphoron (neither mandated nor forbidden) although it seems the overwhelming majority of Protestants simply follow Mary, Scripture and that Apostles in silence on this.
Is it True? Necessary?
The individual Pious Xii in 1950 offered nothing to show this opinion of his was true. Or biblical. Or important. Nor did he indicate that it mattered if it was true. But suddenly this view secured imposed de fide dogma status.
My Catholic teachers defended this view as de fide dogma of highest certainty and necessity possible by noting that her body has never been found. This, they noted, proves this view to be True and Necessary to the very highest level possible.
History:
Of course, we have no mention of this from Mary or Jesus or any of the Apostles or in Scripture.
The first known historic personal comment related to this is a statement by Saint Epiphanius of Salamis in AD 377 that no one knew whether Mary had died or not and rejecting the idea of any assumption. However, we do find a statement to the contrary coming much later in 490. By the Seventh Century, at least personal opinions concerning the "assumption" were common. By the ninth century, it was a fairly universal personal opinion. However, none showed it to be true and none insisted it was de fide dogma.
It was declared Dogma by the individual Pope Pius XII on November 1, 1950, by virtue of the claim of the RCC that the Pope of the RCC is "infallible" (and thus unaccountable) and whatever he himself says (ex officio) is to be docilicly swallowed whole.
What is the documentation that this view is true? Necessary? As a matter of highest importance, necessity and certainty possible? What shows that it is TRUE? IMPORTANT, necessary to the highest level possible?
What is your evaluation of this declaration of the "pope" of the individual RC Denomination on November 1, 1950?
Thank you!
- Josiah
.
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