Are babies born with sin? (Please explain your answer)
Sin is an inherited alienation from God passed down from Adam and Eve.
Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me. Psalm 51:5
I used to use this verse to support the same belief, but it was (surprisingly) a Lutheran Pastor that opened up the broader context to me.
David is referring to his sinful actions (sending Bathsheba's husband to his death, in order to take his wife), and then fostering a child with Bathsheba. These two sinful actions produced a pregnancy. David is punished for his sin and the child dies.
"Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me" - is what the human produced by such a union might think upon learning the truth.
That Lutheran pastor didn't really teach you properly then because Lutherans point to that verse to show how we're sinful since birth...meaning inherited sin.
I used to use this verse to support the same belief, but it was (surprisingly) a Lutheran Pastor that opened up the broader context to me.
David is referring to his sinful actions (sending Bathsheba's husband to his death, in order to take his wife), and then fostering a child with Bathsheba. These two sinful actions produced a pregnancy. David is punished for his sin and the child dies.
"Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me" - is what the human produced by such a union might think upon learning the truth.
I like that he was honest about the context instead of using it as a "proof text" taken out of context to support a belief. He was Lutheran, so he likely believed in "original sin" for other reasons. So many Christian pastors use texts out of context and it was refreshing to me to see one correcting me on my own misconception of said text.
Sure you did.
No. David in (Ps. 51:1-5) is addressing himself as 'shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.'. He is not addressing the birth of Bathsheba's child. He is addressing his sin and he being sinful at birth.
All one has to do is look at the beginning of the Psalm 51, where the context is given, and then read about the story of David and Bathsheba if one doesn't already know it.
Anyway, the OP asked for reasons why one does/does not believe in Original Sin. Here's one more:
Genesis 6:9 Noah, righteous and blameless. Guess Original Sin passed him by. Now watch as Lees "explains" this to say it doesn't mean what it says.
Yes, the context at the beginning of (Psalm 51) is Davids sin. (51:1) "blot out my transgressions" (51:2) "cleanse me from my sin" (51:3) "For I acknowledge my transgressions: and my sin is ever before me." (51:4) "Against thee, thee only, have I sinned" (51:5) "I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me."
The context is clear. David is addressing his sin. He states he was a sinner from birth. Born a sinner.
(Gen. 6:9) doesn't say anything about Noah not being a sinner. In fact, in (6:8), it is clear that Noah is a sinner. "But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD." Who needs grace? Sinners. The righteousness that describes Noah is the imputed righteousness that God sees him in. (Gen. 7:1) "...for thee have I seen righteous before me" Just like God would with Abraham. (Gen. 15:6) "And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness." An imputed righteousness.
No, watch Lees correct your error and show it means what it says.
Lees
"My sin is ever before me" - Bathsheba's pregnancy that was the result of David having her husband killed so he could sleep with her.
"Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me." - I think this is very clear that David is thinking here of the child, empathizing with how the child would see itself as it came to understand the circumstances of it's conception.
The word translated "grace" is actually Strong's 2580 - which can mean "grace", "favor", even "pleasant" , it doesn't imply that sin had to be committed first or there was forgiveness. Noah's "grace" was God's favor towards him and his family to survive the coming flood.
Genesis 6:9 clearly and unambiguously states that Noah was Righteous and Blameless in all his generations.
You see, you haven't "corrected" anything, just denied the text like I predicted you would.
I like that he was honest about the context instead of using it as a "proof text" taken out of context to support a belief. He was Lutheran, so he likely believed in "original sin" for other reasons. So many Christian pastors use texts out of context and it was refreshing to me to see one correcting me on my own misconception of said text.
I'm not saying that the pastor was wrong in giving the historical lesson of the psalm, but either he was wrong in not pointing out to you the concept of original sin in his explanation to you, or you missed it when he did speak of it.
That's a Lutheran perspective, and he may have held it, or likely did, being a Lutheran. Maybe I am mistaken, but it's a likely perspective across most of Christianity.
That doesn't make it true.
The concept of Original Sin puts a Holy and Righteous God as responsible for evil. If sin is inherited, and an inclination, (by the Will of God), then obviously it's God's doing. You need a Savior because, through no fault of your own, God willed it.
God willed evil so you can be saved. Hmm.
Honestly, this sounds more like a human argument than a Divine one. "I'm not at fault!!" "It was Eve!" "It was the Devil!"...not me! If it's me....it was because of something that God planted in me! I cannot be held to account in any case, because something other than me compelled me! I have no free will.
What the Christian is proclaiming here is that God made them do it.