Yeah there are a lot of books now,
It seems you are evading the point: What you claimed the article in the CPH publication states is... well.... not so.
but the Hebrew books that were translated to Greek but were rejected from Jewish canon were still considered traditional scripture for the Christian churches
Which books? List the exact corpus you are speaking of.
Then prove that all Christian churches have always declared that exact list of books to be inerrant, FULLY-canonical, inscripturated words of God that legally must appear in any tome up for sale that has the word "BIBLE" on the cover. We both know you can do neither, which, my friend, is why you and Nathan are so careful to speak in vague generalities.
You brought up this tome published by Concordia Publishing House. But what you stated it says is pretty much the opposite of what it actually states.
The church settled the NT canon
You and Nathan usually avoid the issue of the NT and speak of some mysterious, unstated corpus of books NO ONE EVER has claimed are part of the NT or even the NT Apocrypha.
But here too, you are simply wrong. The church has never done anything about the NT canon. Sorry, but study the Seven Ecumenical Councils, they are the ONLY official proclamations of the church (at most... some claim only the first 3 or 4 are such), and NONE of those "settled" the issue of the NT canon. Yes, you can find a handful of INDIVIDUAL MEN who stated THEIR opinion.... you can find 3 or 4 diocesan meetings that stated what it so regarded, but the Church is more than one man or one diocese of one Christian denomination or one translation.
You brought up this tome published by Concordia Publishing House and an article within it. But what you stated it says is pretty much the opposite of what it does state. It says there was no consensus about books you allude to (but won't name), there was "division" and disagreement.
the church had called them Holy scripture
Nope.
And again (I've asked you for this for well over a year now), what "THEM?"
And WHERE did some Ruling Body of all Christianity declare that exact corpus of writing to be "HOLY SCRIPTURE?"
You brought up a tome published by Concordia Publishing House to quote an article in it and stated that it claimed something.... but as I showed, it DOES NOT at all state that... indeed, it goes on to make the opposite point of yours. What you stated is simply not the case.
they were still put to good use!
Again, what "THEY?" Luther's list? The one from the Anglican Church? The one from The Council of Trent by the RCC? The Greek Orthodox corpus? The Coptic Church corpus? What "THEY"
The Didache is put to good use, too. Some writings of some ECF's were and are put to good use.
MILLIONS of writings are put to good use. How does that indicate that the therefore all of them are therefore the inerrant, fully canonical, inscripturated words of God that must appear in any tome published that has the word "BIBLE" on the front cover (and only such)? USING is not the same thing as DECLARING such to be inerrant, fully canonical, inscripturated words of God. And USING or not USING them has nothing to do with forbidding a publishing house from including and not including them in a tome it sells.
It is impossible to "rip out" what was not put in.
I have a tome with "BIBLE" on the cover that only has 27 NT books included between the covers. So, does that prove that ergo Christianity "ripped out" 39 or 44 or 46 or 50 or 52 books (and perhaps 4 psalms) from what the Ruling Body of all Christianity had declared at some meeting you won't identify? Or does it mean that a publishing house decided to sell a tome with just 27 books in it? That publishing house NOT being the Ruling Body of All Christianity making an official, binding declaration for Christianity? Consider that.
now it's taboo and weird for people to accept the "apocrypha" as traditional ecclesiastical scripture as Holy for the Christian Church
Which people? What declared this "taboo?" Catholics? Anglicans? Lutherans? The Fourth Ecumenical Council?
I know of NONE who state that it's "weird" and "taboo" to regard the mysterious corpus of writings you won't identify to regard this "them" to be Holy in Christianity. What I think is very common is to not accept that this mysterious group of stuff has been declared by some Ruling Body of all Christianity to be inerrant, fully canonical, inscripturated words of God that every publishing house in the world must include in any tome it sells that has the word "BIBLE" on the cover. And perhaps they disagree with you that all Christians regarded "these" to be equal to "the Old Testament." I think it's your claims they'd disagree with.
And again, yet again, I'll ask: Please list for us all the denominations (there's perhaps 50,000 - 100,000 0f them) that have declared that you are forbidden to read anything in this mysterious "them?" Who has declared such to be "taboo?" List for us the denominations that have so stated. Now Nathan suggested by HIS individual parish (a member of the Assemblies of God) appears to not encourage it (a claim I would not challenge) but one parish out of perhaps 3,000.000 in the world.... APPEARING to not ENCOURAGE reading them is not the equal of Christianity "ripping" them out of tomes. I'd perhaps be able to argue that the Book of Jude is not widely used in every one of the 3,000,000 parishes of modern Christianity but that hardly indicates that Christians are forbidden or regarded as "weird" to read it.
Those books were never meant to be removed
What "those?"
It's impossible for any person, parish, denomination or Ruling Body of all Christianity to remove something it didn't put in. No one, no thing can "rip out" what isn't there. FIRST you need to prove that Christianity "put in" the mysterious corpus of "them" you speak of ... give the list.... give the date and place where CHRISTIANITY officially declared that exact corpus to be inerrant, fully canonical, inscripturated words of God. Just list the place, the date, and the exact declaration. NOT of some individual person, NOT of some individual diocese, NOT of some individual translation but CHRISTIANITY, the CHURCH. When you prove "them" were put in, you THEN can begin to discuss if some "ripped out" part of them.
Again, my friend, if YOU want to "use" Psalm 151... I know of NONE (no person, no parish, no denomination, no business, no Declaration of the Ruling Body of Christianity that forbids you from doing so. The same goes for 4 Maccabees, The Epistle of Barnabas, Luther's Small Catechism, some writing of some Early Church Father, or even some secular history book. A publishing house MAY not included EVERY BOOK you are welcome to USE in every tome it sells with the word "BIBLE" on the cover - I'll concede that - but that's not the same as "ripping them out" of such tomes. And it's not the same as declaring the use of them as "weird" and "taboo."
Friend, WHATEVER your point is (and that of Nathan).... it seems to me you are WAY overstating things and making claims that clearly aren't true. Even misstating articles you yourself bring up, stating they state something they obviously don't. Nathan seems very angry that it seems the leaders of his individual parish of the Assemblies of God didn't introduce him to this "them". Okay. Doesn't surprise me. But all the HUGE, unfounded LEAPS he makes (and you appear to echo) from this likelihood are simply false. This "them" was never officially put IN by Christianity... and no one entered his church on a Saturday night, gathered up all the pew bibles, and RIPPED OUT the "them."
You are correct that there are books ONCE more widely USED than today... a point no one challenges, but that's entirely unrelated to all your constant, baseless claims about "in" and "out" and "the Christian Church," "Holy Scripture," etc., etc., etc., etc. ...
But to the thread: You claimed this article said something that it CLEARLY does not. Sorry.
Blessings.
- Josiah
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