I think the WHEN is less relevant than the WHO and WHY.
“Therefore, because it has been definitely established that the Septuagint version was translated from the original, unadulterated Hebrew scriptures, it is reasonable for us to use that version for this chronicle - especially since it is the only version that is approved by the church of Christ, which has spread throughout the whole world, and it is the version that was handed down to us from the beginning by the apostles and disciples of Christ.”
-Eusebius’ Chronicon
Eusebius: Chronicle (5) - translation
A translation of Eusebius' Chronicle, Book 1, pages 71-131 (Schoene)www.attalus.org
Why not?So your date of the flood is based upon the 'Septuagint'?
Lees
Why not?
If you don't mind me answering that question, yes Nathan advocates the Septuagint as being a more accurate translation of an older and more genuine Hebrew than that of the MasoreticI would first like an answer to my question. Then the answer as to why or why not can be asked. So, is NathanH83 basing his date of the flood on the Septuagint? I ask because the statement in post #(3) is a quote and not his.
Lees
If you don't mind me answering that question, yes Nathan advocates the Septuagint as being a more accurate translation of an older and more genuine Hebrew than that of the Masoretic
I have heard both that the Septuagint is an older, more accurate translation and that it was translated later so that Jesus and the apostles would not have had it available, yet the references to the OT in our bibles don't match what is in our OT, but supposedly match the Septuagint. If the Septuagint was written prior to Jesus' advent on this planet, and if Jesus and the apostles were using it, then it is good enough for me. Ultimately I don't think any of the foundational doctrines of Christianity are impacted by choice of these texts.
I would first like an answer to my question. Then the answer as to why or why not can be asked. So, is NathanH83 basing his date of the flood on the Septuagint? I ask because the statement in post #(3) is a quote and not his.
Lees
I really don't like trying to discuss through third and fourth parties. Which is what would take place if I answer your question. In other words, NathanH83 has given a quote from another. In that quote I have questions. That is two parties already. Then in answering your question, I would have to assume you know NathanH83's mind concerning the information in the quote and his view. It is much to confusing.
So, I will address your question if you present what NathanH83 presented as yours and what you belive. Then my discussion would be with you.
Lees
“Irrelevant” is a term YOU selected.Ah, so my question is irrelevant, but your response is.
“Irrelevant” is a term YOU selected.
I never made such a claim.
What I said was …
WHY there was a flood and and WHO created the flood is MORE IMPORTANT than the exact date of the flood.
… and I stand by my statement of fact. The story of Noah is primarily a story of Who and Why rather than When.
Yes, my date for the flood is based upon the Greek Septuagint. But it’s also based upon a number of other evidences and reasonings as well. All that combined is why I think the Septuagint has the correct date for the flood. About 5,000 years ago (3,000 BC).
Andrew has seen my videos and we’ve discussed a lot of things between the two of us. So Andrew knows a lot of what I believe. Sorry for not getting back on this sooner. Been busy recently.
No problem. My questions have more to do with the Septuagint than the flood, or I should say the credibility of the Septuagint. I don't want to be perceived as derailing the thread away from the flood subject. But I myself don't trust the so called 'Septuagint' as evidence.
In the quote you presented from Eusebius he makes 3 absolute and dogmatic claims concerning the Septuagint. They are:
1.) "it has been definitely established that the Septuagint version was translated from the originial"
2.) "it is the only version that is approved by the church of Christ"
3.) "it is the version that was handed down to us from the beginning by the apostles"
Such dogmatic statements certainly reflect the Roman churches view and their method of creating doctrine. They say so, so it must be so. But I disagree. Where is it 'definitely established'? Who dictates it is the 'only version'? How do you know it is the 'only version' from the apostle's?
Also, where is this so called 'Septuagint' that everyone translates from? Where is the oldest known complete copy of the 'Septuagint'?
Lees
No problem. My questions have more to do with the Septuagint than the flood, or I should say the credibility of the Septuagint. I don't want to be perceived as derailing the thread away from the flood subject. But I myself don't trust the so called 'Septuagint' as evidence.
In the quote you presented from Eusebius he makes 3 absolute and dogmatic claims concerning the Septuagint. They are:
1.) "it has been definitely established that the Septuagint version was translated from the originial"
2.) "it is the only version that is approved by the church of Christ"
3.) "it is the version that was handed down to us from the beginning by the apostles"
Such dogmatic statements certainly reflect the Roman churches view and their method of creating doctrine. They say so, so it must be so. But I disagree. Where is it 'definitely established'? Who dictates it is the 'only version'? How do you know it is the 'only version' from the apostle's?
Also, where is this so called 'Septuagint' that everyone translates from? Where is the oldest known complete copy of the 'Septuagint'?
Lees
Also, where is this so called 'Septuagint' that everyone translates from? Where is the oldest known complete copy of the 'Septuagint'?
Lees