Andrew
Matt 18:15
- Joined
- Aug 25, 2017
- Messages
- 6,645
- Age
- 40
- Gender
- Male
- Religious Affiliation
- Christian
- Political Affiliation
- Conservative
- Marital Status
- Single
- Acceptance of the Trinity & Nicene Creed
- Yes
The gnostic gospels were never part of the Bible but what about books that were added by Jews centuries before Christ's earthly ministry and were taken out post Christ's ascension and after all the Apostles had died off?
Why were they banned from the inherent Word of the Living and Sovereign God if early letters and documents from Christianity's infancy tell us that they most definitely preached on and understood certain books that would later be denounced as uninspired?
I apologize for any ignorance on my part but how is it possible for 1rst, 2nd and 3rd century Christians to get away with willfully accepting and identifying with non biblical characters and narratives in their teachings if they weren't 100% inherent to begin with?
If they weren't inspired yet remained so widely distributed centuries before and after Christ's ministry, why did none of the Apostles warn us of "former" documents having been loosed in the church?
Was God unsuccessful in providing the gentile and Greek speaking majority of the Hebrew nation with his word in the common tongue of that time?
If that's the case then perhaps all nations should be under one umbrella of speaking and using Hebrew only, as if God was unable to prepare the greek speaking majority of both Jew and Gentile without using Hebrew alone or through a Hebrew scholar alone.
Yet today we have Bible translations in every tongue and in every nation worldwide.
Perhaps the LXX isn't so mythical after all, it truly did exist just in time for the "grafting in of nations", it was and still is a blessing for Christianity today
Why were they banned from the inherent Word of the Living and Sovereign God if early letters and documents from Christianity's infancy tell us that they most definitely preached on and understood certain books that would later be denounced as uninspired?
I apologize for any ignorance on my part but how is it possible for 1rst, 2nd and 3rd century Christians to get away with willfully accepting and identifying with non biblical characters and narratives in their teachings if they weren't 100% inherent to begin with?
If they weren't inspired yet remained so widely distributed centuries before and after Christ's ministry, why did none of the Apostles warn us of "former" documents having been loosed in the church?
Was God unsuccessful in providing the gentile and Greek speaking majority of the Hebrew nation with his word in the common tongue of that time?
If that's the case then perhaps all nations should be under one umbrella of speaking and using Hebrew only, as if God was unable to prepare the greek speaking majority of both Jew and Gentile without using Hebrew alone or through a Hebrew scholar alone.
Yet today we have Bible translations in every tongue and in every nation worldwide.
Perhaps the LXX isn't so mythical after all, it truly did exist just in time for the "grafting in of nations", it was and still is a blessing for Christianity today
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